Prove: $sum b_n < infty Longrightarrow sum a_n < infty $, where $ exists N: forall n geq N:...












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Given two positive sums: $sum_{n=1}^{infty} a_n $ and $ sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n $.



$ exists N: forall n geq N: frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} leq frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$



Prove: $sum {b_n} < infty Longrightarrow sum a_n < infity $



I tried to use the ratio test, but I can't assume that $ frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n} leq b_n$.



Even though I know that $lim _{n to infty} b_n = 0$, that's not enough to determine something about $ frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$.



Especially because the Ratio test is not of the form of "if and only if", so How can I use the fact that $ frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} leq frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$ in order to determine a fact about $sum {a_n} $ convergence?










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    Given two positive sums: $sum_{n=1}^{infty} a_n $ and $ sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n $.



    $ exists N: forall n geq N: frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} leq frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$



    Prove: $sum {b_n} < infty Longrightarrow sum a_n < infity $



    I tried to use the ratio test, but I can't assume that $ frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n} leq b_n$.



    Even though I know that $lim _{n to infty} b_n = 0$, that's not enough to determine something about $ frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$.



    Especially because the Ratio test is not of the form of "if and only if", so How can I use the fact that $ frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} leq frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$ in order to determine a fact about $sum {a_n} $ convergence?










    share|cite|improve this question

























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      Given two positive sums: $sum_{n=1}^{infty} a_n $ and $ sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n $.



      $ exists N: forall n geq N: frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} leq frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$



      Prove: $sum {b_n} < infty Longrightarrow sum a_n < infity $



      I tried to use the ratio test, but I can't assume that $ frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n} leq b_n$.



      Even though I know that $lim _{n to infty} b_n = 0$, that's not enough to determine something about $ frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$.



      Especially because the Ratio test is not of the form of "if and only if", so How can I use the fact that $ frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} leq frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$ in order to determine a fact about $sum {a_n} $ convergence?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Given two positive sums: $sum_{n=1}^{infty} a_n $ and $ sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n $.



      $ exists N: forall n geq N: frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} leq frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$



      Prove: $sum {b_n} < infty Longrightarrow sum a_n < infity $



      I tried to use the ratio test, but I can't assume that $ frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n} leq b_n$.



      Even though I know that $lim _{n to infty} b_n = 0$, that's not enough to determine something about $ frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$.



      Especially because the Ratio test is not of the form of "if and only if", so How can I use the fact that $ frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} leq frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$ in order to determine a fact about $sum {a_n} $ convergence?







      real-analysis calculus convergence






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      asked Dec 8 at 15:29









      Jneven

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          Note that ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is a decreasing sequence of positives numbers, hence ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is bounded , therefore there is an $M>0$ with $a_nleq M b_n$ for all $nin Bbb N$. Hence $sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_nleq M sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_n<inftyimplies sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n<infty.$






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            Note that ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is a decreasing sequence of positives numbers, hence ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is bounded , therefore there is an $M>0$ with $a_nleq M b_n$ for all $nin Bbb N$. Hence $sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_nleq M sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_n<inftyimplies sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n<infty.$






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              Note that ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is a decreasing sequence of positives numbers, hence ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is bounded , therefore there is an $M>0$ with $a_nleq M b_n$ for all $nin Bbb N$. Hence $sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_nleq M sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_n<inftyimplies sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n<infty.$






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                Note that ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is a decreasing sequence of positives numbers, hence ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is bounded , therefore there is an $M>0$ with $a_nleq M b_n$ for all $nin Bbb N$. Hence $sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_nleq M sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_n<inftyimplies sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n<infty.$






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                Note that ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is a decreasing sequence of positives numbers, hence ${frac{a_n}{b_n}}_{nin Bbb N}$ is bounded , therefore there is an $M>0$ with $a_nleq M b_n$ for all $nin Bbb N$. Hence $sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_nleq M sum_{n=1}^{infty}b_n<inftyimplies sum_{n=1}^{infty}a_n<infty.$







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                answered Dec 8 at 15:58









                UserS

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