$P(X>0,Y>0)$ for a bivariate normal distribution with correlation $rho$
$X$ and $Y$ have a bivariate normal distribution with $rho$ as covariance. $X$ and $Y$ are standard normal variables.
I showed that $X$ and $Z= {frac{Y-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}}$ are independent standard normal variables.
Using this I need to show that
$$P(X >0,Y>0) = frac14 + frac{1}{2pi} cdotmathrm{arcsin}(rho).$$
probability probability-distributions normal-distribution bivariate-distributions
add a comment |
$X$ and $Y$ have a bivariate normal distribution with $rho$ as covariance. $X$ and $Y$ are standard normal variables.
I showed that $X$ and $Z= {frac{Y-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}}$ are independent standard normal variables.
Using this I need to show that
$$P(X >0,Y>0) = frac14 + frac{1}{2pi} cdotmathrm{arcsin}(rho).$$
probability probability-distributions normal-distribution bivariate-distributions
As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:03
it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:12
@user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
– Seyhmus Güngören
Dec 10 '12 at 12:23
add a comment |
$X$ and $Y$ have a bivariate normal distribution with $rho$ as covariance. $X$ and $Y$ are standard normal variables.
I showed that $X$ and $Z= {frac{Y-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}}$ are independent standard normal variables.
Using this I need to show that
$$P(X >0,Y>0) = frac14 + frac{1}{2pi} cdotmathrm{arcsin}(rho).$$
probability probability-distributions normal-distribution bivariate-distributions
$X$ and $Y$ have a bivariate normal distribution with $rho$ as covariance. $X$ and $Y$ are standard normal variables.
I showed that $X$ and $Z= {frac{Y-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}}$ are independent standard normal variables.
Using this I need to show that
$$P(X >0,Y>0) = frac14 + frac{1}{2pi} cdotmathrm{arcsin}(rho).$$
probability probability-distributions normal-distribution bivariate-distributions
probability probability-distributions normal-distribution bivariate-distributions
edited Dec 12 '18 at 22:56
grand_chat
20.1k11226
20.1k11226
asked Dec 10 '12 at 10:51
user669083user669083
4262920
4262920
As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:03
it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:12
@user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
– Seyhmus Güngören
Dec 10 '12 at 12:23
add a comment |
As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:03
it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:12
@user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
– Seyhmus Güngören
Dec 10 '12 at 12:23
As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:03
As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:03
it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:12
Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:12
@user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
– Seyhmus Güngören
Dec 10 '12 at 12:23
@user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
– Seyhmus Güngören
Dec 10 '12 at 12:23
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
$left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
$varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
begin{eqnarray*}
left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
sin varphi, W right)\
left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
end{eqnarray*}
Implying
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
& = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
& = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
end{eqnarray*}
Here is an alternative proof:
Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
end{eqnarray*}
Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
simplifications
$$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
$$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$
is there a simpler solution ?
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 17:58
@user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 1:08
Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
– user52613
Dec 11 '12 at 9:38
@Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 10:34
1
I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
– user669083
Dec 16 '12 at 9:52
add a comment |
Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
$$
P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
$$
Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
$$
begin{align}
int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
&=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
&=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
end{align}
$$
for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
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oldest
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active
oldest
votes
Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
$left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
$varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
begin{eqnarray*}
left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
sin varphi, W right)\
left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
end{eqnarray*}
Implying
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
& = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
& = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
end{eqnarray*}
Here is an alternative proof:
Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
end{eqnarray*}
Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
simplifications
$$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
$$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$
is there a simpler solution ?
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 17:58
@user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 1:08
Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
– user52613
Dec 11 '12 at 9:38
@Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 10:34
1
I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
– user669083
Dec 16 '12 at 9:52
add a comment |
Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
$left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
$varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
begin{eqnarray*}
left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
sin varphi, W right)\
left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
end{eqnarray*}
Implying
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
& = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
& = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
end{eqnarray*}
Here is an alternative proof:
Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
end{eqnarray*}
Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
simplifications
$$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
$$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$
is there a simpler solution ?
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 17:58
@user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 1:08
Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
– user52613
Dec 11 '12 at 9:38
@Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 10:34
1
I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
– user669083
Dec 16 '12 at 9:52
add a comment |
Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
$left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
$varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
begin{eqnarray*}
left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
sin varphi, W right)\
left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
end{eqnarray*}
Implying
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
& = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
& = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
end{eqnarray*}
Here is an alternative proof:
Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
end{eqnarray*}
Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
simplifications
$$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
$$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$
Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
$left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
$varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
begin{eqnarray*}
left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
sin varphi, W right)\
left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
end{eqnarray*}
Implying
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
& = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
& = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
end{eqnarray*}
Here is an alternative proof:
Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
end{eqnarray*}
Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
simplifications
$$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
$$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$
edited Dec 11 '12 at 12:45
answered Dec 10 '12 at 12:01
LearnerLearner
5,00521934
5,00521934
is there a simpler solution ?
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 17:58
@user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 1:08
Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
– user52613
Dec 11 '12 at 9:38
@Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 10:34
1
I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
– user669083
Dec 16 '12 at 9:52
add a comment |
is there a simpler solution ?
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 17:58
@user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 1:08
Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
– user52613
Dec 11 '12 at 9:38
@Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 10:34
1
I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
– user669083
Dec 16 '12 at 9:52
is there a simpler solution ?
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 17:58
is there a simpler solution ?
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 17:58
@user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 1:08
@user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 1:08
Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
– user52613
Dec 11 '12 at 9:38
Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
– user52613
Dec 11 '12 at 9:38
@Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 10:34
@Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
– Learner
Dec 11 '12 at 10:34
1
1
I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
– user669083
Dec 16 '12 at 9:52
I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
– user669083
Dec 16 '12 at 9:52
add a comment |
Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
$$
P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
$$
Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
$$
begin{align}
int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
&=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
&=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
end{align}
$$
for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$
add a comment |
Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
$$
P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
$$
Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
$$
begin{align}
int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
&=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
&=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
end{align}
$$
for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$
add a comment |
Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
$$
P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
$$
Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
$$
begin{align}
int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
&=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
&=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
end{align}
$$
for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$
Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
$$
P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
$$
Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
$$
begin{align}
int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
&=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
&=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
end{align}
$$
for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$
answered Dec 12 '18 at 22:44
grand_chatgrand_chat
20.1k11226
20.1k11226
add a comment |
add a comment |
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As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:03
it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10
Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:12
@user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
– Seyhmus Güngören
Dec 10 '12 at 12:23