Expected Value Iteratively picking divisors of number [closed]












1












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You have a positive integer $n$ written on a blackboard, and you perform $k$ iterations of the following procedure: say the current number is $v$. Pick one of the divisors of $v$ (possibly 1 and $v$ itself) and replace $v$ with this divisor. Each divisor is equally likely to be chosen.



What is the expected value of the number on the blackboard after $k$ iterations?



[This questions is taken from Hello2019D Codeforces]



EDIT (since this was flagged): I am posting this to see if there is any elegant mathematical solution without brute forcing/DP.










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closed as off-topic by Saad, Cesareo, Namaste, Alexander Gruber Jan 8 at 22:06


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Cesareo, Namaste, Alexander Gruber

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Neat question. What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex R.
    Jan 8 at 19:38










  • $begingroup$
    Codeforces lists this as a past contest, if any Reader is concerned.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Jan 8 at 21:26










  • $begingroup$
    Solution is posted on codeforces. I did a brute force implementation which didn't pass test cases due to time complexity. Looking to see if there's an elegant mathematical solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Sameer Lal
    Jan 9 at 22:10
















1












$begingroup$


You have a positive integer $n$ written on a blackboard, and you perform $k$ iterations of the following procedure: say the current number is $v$. Pick one of the divisors of $v$ (possibly 1 and $v$ itself) and replace $v$ with this divisor. Each divisor is equally likely to be chosen.



What is the expected value of the number on the blackboard after $k$ iterations?



[This questions is taken from Hello2019D Codeforces]



EDIT (since this was flagged): I am posting this to see if there is any elegant mathematical solution without brute forcing/DP.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Saad, Cesareo, Namaste, Alexander Gruber Jan 8 at 22:06


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Cesareo, Namaste, Alexander Gruber

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Neat question. What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex R.
    Jan 8 at 19:38










  • $begingroup$
    Codeforces lists this as a past contest, if any Reader is concerned.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Jan 8 at 21:26










  • $begingroup$
    Solution is posted on codeforces. I did a brute force implementation which didn't pass test cases due to time complexity. Looking to see if there's an elegant mathematical solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Sameer Lal
    Jan 9 at 22:10














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


You have a positive integer $n$ written on a blackboard, and you perform $k$ iterations of the following procedure: say the current number is $v$. Pick one of the divisors of $v$ (possibly 1 and $v$ itself) and replace $v$ with this divisor. Each divisor is equally likely to be chosen.



What is the expected value of the number on the blackboard after $k$ iterations?



[This questions is taken from Hello2019D Codeforces]



EDIT (since this was flagged): I am posting this to see if there is any elegant mathematical solution without brute forcing/DP.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




You have a positive integer $n$ written on a blackboard, and you perform $k$ iterations of the following procedure: say the current number is $v$. Pick one of the divisors of $v$ (possibly 1 and $v$ itself) and replace $v$ with this divisor. Each divisor is equally likely to be chosen.



What is the expected value of the number on the blackboard after $k$ iterations?



[This questions is taken from Hello2019D Codeforces]



EDIT (since this was flagged): I am posting this to see if there is any elegant mathematical solution without brute forcing/DP.







probability elementary-number-theory recurrence-relations expected-value dynamic-programming






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 12 at 21:14







Sameer Lal

















asked Jan 8 at 13:39









Sameer LalSameer Lal

215




215




closed as off-topic by Saad, Cesareo, Namaste, Alexander Gruber Jan 8 at 22:06


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Cesareo, Namaste, Alexander Gruber

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by Saad, Cesareo, Namaste, Alexander Gruber Jan 8 at 22:06


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Cesareo, Namaste, Alexander Gruber

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Neat question. What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex R.
    Jan 8 at 19:38










  • $begingroup$
    Codeforces lists this as a past contest, if any Reader is concerned.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Jan 8 at 21:26










  • $begingroup$
    Solution is posted on codeforces. I did a brute force implementation which didn't pass test cases due to time complexity. Looking to see if there's an elegant mathematical solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Sameer Lal
    Jan 9 at 22:10














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Neat question. What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex R.
    Jan 8 at 19:38










  • $begingroup$
    Codeforces lists this as a past contest, if any Reader is concerned.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Jan 8 at 21:26










  • $begingroup$
    Solution is posted on codeforces. I did a brute force implementation which didn't pass test cases due to time complexity. Looking to see if there's an elegant mathematical solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Sameer Lal
    Jan 9 at 22:10








1




1




$begingroup$
Neat question. What have you tried?
$endgroup$
– Alex R.
Jan 8 at 19:38




$begingroup$
Neat question. What have you tried?
$endgroup$
– Alex R.
Jan 8 at 19:38












$begingroup$
Codeforces lists this as a past contest, if any Reader is concerned.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Jan 8 at 21:26




$begingroup$
Codeforces lists this as a past contest, if any Reader is concerned.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Jan 8 at 21:26












$begingroup$
Solution is posted on codeforces. I did a brute force implementation which didn't pass test cases due to time complexity. Looking to see if there's an elegant mathematical solution.
$endgroup$
– Sameer Lal
Jan 9 at 22:10




$begingroup$
Solution is posted on codeforces. I did a brute force implementation which didn't pass test cases due to time complexity. Looking to see if there's an elegant mathematical solution.
$endgroup$
– Sameer Lal
Jan 9 at 22:10










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















-1












$begingroup$

Write $v_n=p_1^{alpha_1(n)}cdots p_{r}^{alpha_r(n)}$, and $d_{k}$ the divisor chosen at at step $k$. Since divisors are picked uniformly at random, it's equivalent at any given time to sample $d$ by sampling $a_{I}(k+1)$ from ${0,1,cdots,alpha_i(k)}$, so that $d_{n+1}=p_1^{a_1(k+1)}cdots p_r^{a_r(k+1)}$ and $alpha_{I}(k+1)=alpha_i(k)-a_i(k+1).$ By symmetry, it's equivalent to instead pick the form of $v_{k+1}$, e.g. $alpha_{I}(k+1)=a_i(k+1)$.



By stars and bars, for $v_k$ the probably that $v_k=p_1^{b_1}cdots p_r^{b_r}$ is equal to $prod_{i=1}^rbinom{a_i-b_i+k+1}{k}/binom{a_i+k+1}{k}$. There's probably no explicit form for this expectation, but you can now numerically compute the answer for any $v$ once you find it's prime factorization, by summing over all possibilities and their probabilities.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I think it is enough to find the expectation for a prime power $p^n$. If it is denoted by $mu(p,n)$ and $v=p_1^{n_1}cdots p_k^{n_k}$ then the expectation will be $mu(p_1,n_1)timescdotstimesmu(p_k,n_k)$ by independence. Unfortunately it seems hard to find $mu(p,n)$. I gave up.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 9 at 9:57




















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









-1












$begingroup$

Write $v_n=p_1^{alpha_1(n)}cdots p_{r}^{alpha_r(n)}$, and $d_{k}$ the divisor chosen at at step $k$. Since divisors are picked uniformly at random, it's equivalent at any given time to sample $d$ by sampling $a_{I}(k+1)$ from ${0,1,cdots,alpha_i(k)}$, so that $d_{n+1}=p_1^{a_1(k+1)}cdots p_r^{a_r(k+1)}$ and $alpha_{I}(k+1)=alpha_i(k)-a_i(k+1).$ By symmetry, it's equivalent to instead pick the form of $v_{k+1}$, e.g. $alpha_{I}(k+1)=a_i(k+1)$.



By stars and bars, for $v_k$ the probably that $v_k=p_1^{b_1}cdots p_r^{b_r}$ is equal to $prod_{i=1}^rbinom{a_i-b_i+k+1}{k}/binom{a_i+k+1}{k}$. There's probably no explicit form for this expectation, but you can now numerically compute the answer for any $v$ once you find it's prime factorization, by summing over all possibilities and their probabilities.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I think it is enough to find the expectation for a prime power $p^n$. If it is denoted by $mu(p,n)$ and $v=p_1^{n_1}cdots p_k^{n_k}$ then the expectation will be $mu(p_1,n_1)timescdotstimesmu(p_k,n_k)$ by independence. Unfortunately it seems hard to find $mu(p,n)$. I gave up.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 9 at 9:57


















-1












$begingroup$

Write $v_n=p_1^{alpha_1(n)}cdots p_{r}^{alpha_r(n)}$, and $d_{k}$ the divisor chosen at at step $k$. Since divisors are picked uniformly at random, it's equivalent at any given time to sample $d$ by sampling $a_{I}(k+1)$ from ${0,1,cdots,alpha_i(k)}$, so that $d_{n+1}=p_1^{a_1(k+1)}cdots p_r^{a_r(k+1)}$ and $alpha_{I}(k+1)=alpha_i(k)-a_i(k+1).$ By symmetry, it's equivalent to instead pick the form of $v_{k+1}$, e.g. $alpha_{I}(k+1)=a_i(k+1)$.



By stars and bars, for $v_k$ the probably that $v_k=p_1^{b_1}cdots p_r^{b_r}$ is equal to $prod_{i=1}^rbinom{a_i-b_i+k+1}{k}/binom{a_i+k+1}{k}$. There's probably no explicit form for this expectation, but you can now numerically compute the answer for any $v$ once you find it's prime factorization, by summing over all possibilities and their probabilities.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I think it is enough to find the expectation for a prime power $p^n$. If it is denoted by $mu(p,n)$ and $v=p_1^{n_1}cdots p_k^{n_k}$ then the expectation will be $mu(p_1,n_1)timescdotstimesmu(p_k,n_k)$ by independence. Unfortunately it seems hard to find $mu(p,n)$. I gave up.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 9 at 9:57
















-1












-1








-1





$begingroup$

Write $v_n=p_1^{alpha_1(n)}cdots p_{r}^{alpha_r(n)}$, and $d_{k}$ the divisor chosen at at step $k$. Since divisors are picked uniformly at random, it's equivalent at any given time to sample $d$ by sampling $a_{I}(k+1)$ from ${0,1,cdots,alpha_i(k)}$, so that $d_{n+1}=p_1^{a_1(k+1)}cdots p_r^{a_r(k+1)}$ and $alpha_{I}(k+1)=alpha_i(k)-a_i(k+1).$ By symmetry, it's equivalent to instead pick the form of $v_{k+1}$, e.g. $alpha_{I}(k+1)=a_i(k+1)$.



By stars and bars, for $v_k$ the probably that $v_k=p_1^{b_1}cdots p_r^{b_r}$ is equal to $prod_{i=1}^rbinom{a_i-b_i+k+1}{k}/binom{a_i+k+1}{k}$. There's probably no explicit form for this expectation, but you can now numerically compute the answer for any $v$ once you find it's prime factorization, by summing over all possibilities and their probabilities.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Write $v_n=p_1^{alpha_1(n)}cdots p_{r}^{alpha_r(n)}$, and $d_{k}$ the divisor chosen at at step $k$. Since divisors are picked uniformly at random, it's equivalent at any given time to sample $d$ by sampling $a_{I}(k+1)$ from ${0,1,cdots,alpha_i(k)}$, so that $d_{n+1}=p_1^{a_1(k+1)}cdots p_r^{a_r(k+1)}$ and $alpha_{I}(k+1)=alpha_i(k)-a_i(k+1).$ By symmetry, it's equivalent to instead pick the form of $v_{k+1}$, e.g. $alpha_{I}(k+1)=a_i(k+1)$.



By stars and bars, for $v_k$ the probably that $v_k=p_1^{b_1}cdots p_r^{b_r}$ is equal to $prod_{i=1}^rbinom{a_i-b_i+k+1}{k}/binom{a_i+k+1}{k}$. There's probably no explicit form for this expectation, but you can now numerically compute the answer for any $v$ once you find it's prime factorization, by summing over all possibilities and their probabilities.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 9 at 18:50

























answered Jan 9 at 1:24









Alex R.Alex R.

25.1k12452




25.1k12452












  • $begingroup$
    I think it is enough to find the expectation for a prime power $p^n$. If it is denoted by $mu(p,n)$ and $v=p_1^{n_1}cdots p_k^{n_k}$ then the expectation will be $mu(p_1,n_1)timescdotstimesmu(p_k,n_k)$ by independence. Unfortunately it seems hard to find $mu(p,n)$. I gave up.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 9 at 9:57




















  • $begingroup$
    I think it is enough to find the expectation for a prime power $p^n$. If it is denoted by $mu(p,n)$ and $v=p_1^{n_1}cdots p_k^{n_k}$ then the expectation will be $mu(p_1,n_1)timescdotstimesmu(p_k,n_k)$ by independence. Unfortunately it seems hard to find $mu(p,n)$. I gave up.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 9 at 9:57


















$begingroup$
I think it is enough to find the expectation for a prime power $p^n$. If it is denoted by $mu(p,n)$ and $v=p_1^{n_1}cdots p_k^{n_k}$ then the expectation will be $mu(p_1,n_1)timescdotstimesmu(p_k,n_k)$ by independence. Unfortunately it seems hard to find $mu(p,n)$. I gave up.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 9 at 9:57






$begingroup$
I think it is enough to find the expectation for a prime power $p^n$. If it is denoted by $mu(p,n)$ and $v=p_1^{n_1}cdots p_k^{n_k}$ then the expectation will be $mu(p_1,n_1)timescdotstimesmu(p_k,n_k)$ by independence. Unfortunately it seems hard to find $mu(p,n)$. I gave up.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 9 at 9:57





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