Let $X$ be a Banach space then every absolutely convergent series in $X$ converges in $X$
$begingroup$
my trial
Let $sum x_k$ be absolutely convergent in $X$ $implies$
$sum |x_k |$ converges in $mathbb{R}$ $implies$
$forall epsilon >0, exists N(epsilon)$ st $forall n>N(epsilon)$. we have
$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - L |$ < $epsilon$ where $L$ is the limit in $mathbb{R}$. Now fix an $epsilon$>0 then there exist some $N$ st for all $n>N$
$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - L |$ < $epsilon$
By reverse-triangular inequality $implies$ $ | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | $ < $epsilon + |L| = epsilon'$. Similarly for $m>n>N$ we have
$ | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | $ < $epsilon'$
By triangular inequality, we get $| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | | <2 $$epsilon$'
But $| sum_{k=1}^{n} x_k - sum_{k=1}^{m} x_k|$ =$| sum_{k=n+1}^{m} x_k |=$$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | | <2 $$epsilon$'
Hence ${ sum_{k=1}^{n} x_k }$ is a cauchy sequence in $X$ thus has a limit in $X$ so $sum x_k $ converges in $X$.
Is my proof correct?
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification banach-spaces absolute-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
my trial
Let $sum x_k$ be absolutely convergent in $X$ $implies$
$sum |x_k |$ converges in $mathbb{R}$ $implies$
$forall epsilon >0, exists N(epsilon)$ st $forall n>N(epsilon)$. we have
$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - L |$ < $epsilon$ where $L$ is the limit in $mathbb{R}$. Now fix an $epsilon$>0 then there exist some $N$ st for all $n>N$
$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - L |$ < $epsilon$
By reverse-triangular inequality $implies$ $ | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | $ < $epsilon + |L| = epsilon'$. Similarly for $m>n>N$ we have
$ | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | $ < $epsilon'$
By triangular inequality, we get $| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | | <2 $$epsilon$'
But $| sum_{k=1}^{n} x_k - sum_{k=1}^{m} x_k|$ =$| sum_{k=n+1}^{m} x_k |=$$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | | <2 $$epsilon$'
Hence ${ sum_{k=1}^{n} x_k }$ is a cauchy sequence in $X$ thus has a limit in $X$ so $sum x_k $ converges in $X$.
Is my proof correct?
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification banach-spaces absolute-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
my trial
Let $sum x_k$ be absolutely convergent in $X$ $implies$
$sum |x_k |$ converges in $mathbb{R}$ $implies$
$forall epsilon >0, exists N(epsilon)$ st $forall n>N(epsilon)$. we have
$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - L |$ < $epsilon$ where $L$ is the limit in $mathbb{R}$. Now fix an $epsilon$>0 then there exist some $N$ st for all $n>N$
$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - L |$ < $epsilon$
By reverse-triangular inequality $implies$ $ | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | $ < $epsilon + |L| = epsilon'$. Similarly for $m>n>N$ we have
$ | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | $ < $epsilon'$
By triangular inequality, we get $| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | | <2 $$epsilon$'
But $| sum_{k=1}^{n} x_k - sum_{k=1}^{m} x_k|$ =$| sum_{k=n+1}^{m} x_k |=$$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | | <2 $$epsilon$'
Hence ${ sum_{k=1}^{n} x_k }$ is a cauchy sequence in $X$ thus has a limit in $X$ so $sum x_k $ converges in $X$.
Is my proof correct?
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification banach-spaces absolute-convergence
$endgroup$
my trial
Let $sum x_k$ be absolutely convergent in $X$ $implies$
$sum |x_k |$ converges in $mathbb{R}$ $implies$
$forall epsilon >0, exists N(epsilon)$ st $forall n>N(epsilon)$. we have
$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - L |$ < $epsilon$ where $L$ is the limit in $mathbb{R}$. Now fix an $epsilon$>0 then there exist some $N$ st for all $n>N$
$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - L |$ < $epsilon$
By reverse-triangular inequality $implies$ $ | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | $ < $epsilon + |L| = epsilon'$. Similarly for $m>n>N$ we have
$ | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | $ < $epsilon'$
By triangular inequality, we get $| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | | <2 $$epsilon$'
But $| sum_{k=1}^{n} x_k - sum_{k=1}^{m} x_k|$ =$| sum_{k=n+1}^{m} x_k |=$$| | sum_{k=1}^{k=n} x_k | - | sum_{k=1}^{k=m} x_k | | <2 $$epsilon$'
Hence ${ sum_{k=1}^{n} x_k }$ is a cauchy sequence in $X$ thus has a limit in $X$ so $sum x_k $ converges in $X$.
Is my proof correct?
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification banach-spaces absolute-convergence
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification banach-spaces absolute-convergence
edited Dec 31 '18 at 17:51
Dreamer123
asked Dec 31 '18 at 17:32
Dreamer123Dreamer123
32729
32729
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
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$begingroup$
You've more or less got the right idea, but we've got to put the norm signs in the right place, and there is a place near the end where we need to use the triangle inequality slightly differently.
The fact that $sum_{k = 1}^infty | x_k |$ converges and is equal to $L$ (say) means that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists an $N(epsilon) in mathbb N$ such that
$$ n geq N(epsilon ) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < epsilon .$$
Following through with your original approach, we find that
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies sum_{k = n + 1}^{m} | x_k| < 2epsilon .$$
[To spell it out, I'm using the triangle inequality like this:
$$ sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k | = left| left( sum_{k = 1}^m | x_k | - Lright)- left( sum_{k = 1}^n | x_k | - L right)right| leq left| sum_{k = 1}^{m}| x_k | - Lright| + left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < 2epsilon$$
]
To show that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, we must use the triangle inequality like this:
$$ left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| = left| sum_{k=n+1}^m x_kright| leq sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k |.$$
So for any $epsilon > 0$, we have
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| < 2epsilon$$
which implies that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is Cauchy, and hence, convergent.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the last two lines, the triangular inequality is in the norm of $X$ not in absolute value
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 18:47
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 31 '18 at 18:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, your proof does not work because:
- The conclusion that you get from the reverse triangle inequality is that$$leftlVertsum_{k=1}^nx_krightrVert<varepsilon+lvert Lrvert.$$
- If you define $varepsilon'=varepsilon+lvert Lrvert$, then $varepsilon'$ is not an arbitrary number greater than $0$, as it should be.
In order to get a proof, apply the Cauchy criterion for series.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is that? since $epsilon$ is chosen arbitrarily and $L$ is fixed then $epsilon$' is arbitrary
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 17:56
1
$begingroup$
Not so, since $varepsilon'geqslant L$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 31 '18 at 17:57
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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active
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You've more or less got the right idea, but we've got to put the norm signs in the right place, and there is a place near the end where we need to use the triangle inequality slightly differently.
The fact that $sum_{k = 1}^infty | x_k |$ converges and is equal to $L$ (say) means that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists an $N(epsilon) in mathbb N$ such that
$$ n geq N(epsilon ) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < epsilon .$$
Following through with your original approach, we find that
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies sum_{k = n + 1}^{m} | x_k| < 2epsilon .$$
[To spell it out, I'm using the triangle inequality like this:
$$ sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k | = left| left( sum_{k = 1}^m | x_k | - Lright)- left( sum_{k = 1}^n | x_k | - L right)right| leq left| sum_{k = 1}^{m}| x_k | - Lright| + left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < 2epsilon$$
]
To show that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, we must use the triangle inequality like this:
$$ left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| = left| sum_{k=n+1}^m x_kright| leq sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k |.$$
So for any $epsilon > 0$, we have
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| < 2epsilon$$
which implies that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is Cauchy, and hence, convergent.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the last two lines, the triangular inequality is in the norm of $X$ not in absolute value
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 18:47
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 31 '18 at 18:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You've more or less got the right idea, but we've got to put the norm signs in the right place, and there is a place near the end where we need to use the triangle inequality slightly differently.
The fact that $sum_{k = 1}^infty | x_k |$ converges and is equal to $L$ (say) means that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists an $N(epsilon) in mathbb N$ such that
$$ n geq N(epsilon ) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < epsilon .$$
Following through with your original approach, we find that
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies sum_{k = n + 1}^{m} | x_k| < 2epsilon .$$
[To spell it out, I'm using the triangle inequality like this:
$$ sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k | = left| left( sum_{k = 1}^m | x_k | - Lright)- left( sum_{k = 1}^n | x_k | - L right)right| leq left| sum_{k = 1}^{m}| x_k | - Lright| + left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < 2epsilon$$
]
To show that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, we must use the triangle inequality like this:
$$ left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| = left| sum_{k=n+1}^m x_kright| leq sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k |.$$
So for any $epsilon > 0$, we have
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| < 2epsilon$$
which implies that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is Cauchy, and hence, convergent.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the last two lines, the triangular inequality is in the norm of $X$ not in absolute value
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 18:47
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 31 '18 at 18:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You've more or less got the right idea, but we've got to put the norm signs in the right place, and there is a place near the end where we need to use the triangle inequality slightly differently.
The fact that $sum_{k = 1}^infty | x_k |$ converges and is equal to $L$ (say) means that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists an $N(epsilon) in mathbb N$ such that
$$ n geq N(epsilon ) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < epsilon .$$
Following through with your original approach, we find that
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies sum_{k = n + 1}^{m} | x_k| < 2epsilon .$$
[To spell it out, I'm using the triangle inequality like this:
$$ sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k | = left| left( sum_{k = 1}^m | x_k | - Lright)- left( sum_{k = 1}^n | x_k | - L right)right| leq left| sum_{k = 1}^{m}| x_k | - Lright| + left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < 2epsilon$$
]
To show that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, we must use the triangle inequality like this:
$$ left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| = left| sum_{k=n+1}^m x_kright| leq sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k |.$$
So for any $epsilon > 0$, we have
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| < 2epsilon$$
which implies that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is Cauchy, and hence, convergent.
$endgroup$
You've more or less got the right idea, but we've got to put the norm signs in the right place, and there is a place near the end where we need to use the triangle inequality slightly differently.
The fact that $sum_{k = 1}^infty | x_k |$ converges and is equal to $L$ (say) means that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists an $N(epsilon) in mathbb N$ such that
$$ n geq N(epsilon ) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < epsilon .$$
Following through with your original approach, we find that
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies sum_{k = n + 1}^{m} | x_k| < 2epsilon .$$
[To spell it out, I'm using the triangle inequality like this:
$$ sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k | = left| left( sum_{k = 1}^m | x_k | - Lright)- left( sum_{k = 1}^n | x_k | - L right)right| leq left| sum_{k = 1}^{m}| x_k | - Lright| + left| sum_{k = 1}^{n}| x_k | - Lright| < 2epsilon$$
]
To show that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, we must use the triangle inequality like this:
$$ left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| = left| sum_{k=n+1}^m x_kright| leq sum_{k = n+1}^m | x_k |.$$
So for any $epsilon > 0$, we have
$$ m > n geq N(epsilon) implies left| sum_{k = 1}^m x_k - sum_{k = 1}^nx_kright| < 2epsilon$$
which implies that $n mapsto sum_{k = 1}^n x_k$ is Cauchy, and hence, convergent.
edited Dec 31 '18 at 18:48
answered Dec 31 '18 at 17:50
Kenny WongKenny Wong
19k21440
19k21440
$begingroup$
In the last two lines, the triangular inequality is in the norm of $X$ not in absolute value
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 18:47
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 31 '18 at 18:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In the last two lines, the triangular inequality is in the norm of $X$ not in absolute value
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 18:47
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 31 '18 at 18:48
$begingroup$
In the last two lines, the triangular inequality is in the norm of $X$ not in absolute value
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 18:47
$begingroup$
In the last two lines, the triangular inequality is in the norm of $X$ not in absolute value
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 18:47
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 31 '18 at 18:48
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 31 '18 at 18:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, your proof does not work because:
- The conclusion that you get from the reverse triangle inequality is that$$leftlVertsum_{k=1}^nx_krightrVert<varepsilon+lvert Lrvert.$$
- If you define $varepsilon'=varepsilon+lvert Lrvert$, then $varepsilon'$ is not an arbitrary number greater than $0$, as it should be.
In order to get a proof, apply the Cauchy criterion for series.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is that? since $epsilon$ is chosen arbitrarily and $L$ is fixed then $epsilon$' is arbitrary
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 17:56
1
$begingroup$
Not so, since $varepsilon'geqslant L$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 31 '18 at 17:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, your proof does not work because:
- The conclusion that you get from the reverse triangle inequality is that$$leftlVertsum_{k=1}^nx_krightrVert<varepsilon+lvert Lrvert.$$
- If you define $varepsilon'=varepsilon+lvert Lrvert$, then $varepsilon'$ is not an arbitrary number greater than $0$, as it should be.
In order to get a proof, apply the Cauchy criterion for series.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is that? since $epsilon$ is chosen arbitrarily and $L$ is fixed then $epsilon$' is arbitrary
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 17:56
1
$begingroup$
Not so, since $varepsilon'geqslant L$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 31 '18 at 17:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, your proof does not work because:
- The conclusion that you get from the reverse triangle inequality is that$$leftlVertsum_{k=1}^nx_krightrVert<varepsilon+lvert Lrvert.$$
- If you define $varepsilon'=varepsilon+lvert Lrvert$, then $varepsilon'$ is not an arbitrary number greater than $0$, as it should be.
In order to get a proof, apply the Cauchy criterion for series.
$endgroup$
No, your proof does not work because:
- The conclusion that you get from the reverse triangle inequality is that$$leftlVertsum_{k=1}^nx_krightrVert<varepsilon+lvert Lrvert.$$
- If you define $varepsilon'=varepsilon+lvert Lrvert$, then $varepsilon'$ is not an arbitrary number greater than $0$, as it should be.
In order to get a proof, apply the Cauchy criterion for series.
answered Dec 31 '18 at 17:38
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
164k22131235
164k22131235
$begingroup$
Why is that? since $epsilon$ is chosen arbitrarily and $L$ is fixed then $epsilon$' is arbitrary
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 17:56
1
$begingroup$
Not so, since $varepsilon'geqslant L$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 31 '18 at 17:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why is that? since $epsilon$ is chosen arbitrarily and $L$ is fixed then $epsilon$' is arbitrary
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 17:56
1
$begingroup$
Not so, since $varepsilon'geqslant L$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 31 '18 at 17:57
$begingroup$
Why is that? since $epsilon$ is chosen arbitrarily and $L$ is fixed then $epsilon$' is arbitrary
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 17:56
$begingroup$
Why is that? since $epsilon$ is chosen arbitrarily and $L$ is fixed then $epsilon$' is arbitrary
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Dec 31 '18 at 17:56
1
1
$begingroup$
Not so, since $varepsilon'geqslant L$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 31 '18 at 17:57
$begingroup$
Not so, since $varepsilon'geqslant L$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 31 '18 at 17:57
add a comment |
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