Difference between differential and derivative [duplicate]
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Difference between differentiation and derivatives [closed]
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I'm really not clear with the subtlety between derivative and differential. Let $f:mathbb R^2to mathbb R$, then the derivative is $nabla f(x,y)=(partial _x(x,y) f,partial _y f(x,y))$ where as the differential is $df=partial f_xdx+partial _y dy$. What these notation mean ? Also, I always thought that differential and derivative where almost the same, but with thise definitions, I'm completely confuse.
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marked as duplicate by rtybase, Leucippus, José Carlos Santos
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Jan 18 at 6:46
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
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This question already has an answer here:
Difference between differentiation and derivatives [closed]
2 answers
I'm really not clear with the subtlety between derivative and differential. Let $f:mathbb R^2to mathbb R$, then the derivative is $nabla f(x,y)=(partial _x(x,y) f,partial _y f(x,y))$ where as the differential is $df=partial f_xdx+partial _y dy$. What these notation mean ? Also, I always thought that differential and derivative where almost the same, but with thise definitions, I'm completely confuse.
real-analysis
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marked as duplicate by rtybase, Leucippus, José Carlos Santos
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Jan 18 at 6:46
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
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The question is not completely clear. A derivative (or gradient) is a vector. A differential is a linear map. The differential of $f$ at $(a,b)$ is the best approximation of $f$ by a linear map.
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– Surb
Jan 12 at 15:51
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This question already has an answer here:
Difference between differentiation and derivatives [closed]
2 answers
I'm really not clear with the subtlety between derivative and differential. Let $f:mathbb R^2to mathbb R$, then the derivative is $nabla f(x,y)=(partial _x(x,y) f,partial _y f(x,y))$ where as the differential is $df=partial f_xdx+partial _y dy$. What these notation mean ? Also, I always thought that differential and derivative where almost the same, but with thise definitions, I'm completely confuse.
real-analysis
$endgroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Difference between differentiation and derivatives [closed]
2 answers
I'm really not clear with the subtlety between derivative and differential. Let $f:mathbb R^2to mathbb R$, then the derivative is $nabla f(x,y)=(partial _x(x,y) f,partial _y f(x,y))$ where as the differential is $df=partial f_xdx+partial _y dy$. What these notation mean ? Also, I always thought that differential and derivative where almost the same, but with thise definitions, I'm completely confuse.
This question already has an answer here:
Difference between differentiation and derivatives [closed]
2 answers
real-analysis
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asked Jan 12 at 15:47
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marked as duplicate by rtybase, Leucippus, José Carlos Santos
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Jan 18 at 6:46
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Jan 18 at 6:46
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
1
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The question is not completely clear. A derivative (or gradient) is a vector. A differential is a linear map. The differential of $f$ at $(a,b)$ is the best approximation of $f$ by a linear map.
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– Surb
Jan 12 at 15:51
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
The question is not completely clear. A derivative (or gradient) is a vector. A differential is a linear map. The differential of $f$ at $(a,b)$ is the best approximation of $f$ by a linear map.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 12 at 15:51
1
1
$begingroup$
The question is not completely clear. A derivative (or gradient) is a vector. A differential is a linear map. The differential of $f$ at $(a,b)$ is the best approximation of $f$ by a linear map.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 12 at 15:51
$begingroup$
The question is not completely clear. A derivative (or gradient) is a vector. A differential is a linear map. The differential of $f$ at $(a,b)$ is the best approximation of $f$ by a linear map.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 12 at 15:51
add a comment |
1 Answer
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I'm going to try to answer this:
If you consider a function $f:mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}$, then the vector of its partial derivatives, $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ is called the gradient and it is a vector in $mathbb{R}^n$. It is a generalisation of the derivative in a one-dimensional setting.
The total derivative (what you called differential), in the case where the codomain is one-dimensional, is simply a scalar and is the result of multiplying the gradient $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ with a vector $vec{v} in mathbb{R}^n $ (vetor multiplication). It represents the linear approximation of the variation of f when the the coordinates vary by $vec{v}$.
Example
$f(x,y) = x^2+ y^2$, then $nabla f(x,y) = (2x,2y)$. If you consider the point (1,1), then $nabla f(1,1) = (2,2)$ . If you have a variation of the coordinates by the vector $vec{v}= (3,3)$, so you go from $(1,1)$ to $(4,4)$, then your linear approximation of the variation of the function is $ (2,2)*(3,3) = <(2,2),(3,3)> = 12$. This means that the differential (linear approximation of the variation) is of 12.
So if you compute $f(1,1) + nabla f(1,1)*(3,3) = 14$, you obtain a linear approximation of $f(4,4) = 32$. Now this is a bad approximation because we only took the first-order derivative in consideration (look at Taylor Series for more detail on it). If instead we had $f(x,y) = 2x + 2y$, you would see that the linear approximation would give you the exact value.
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
I'm going to try to answer this:
If you consider a function $f:mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}$, then the vector of its partial derivatives, $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ is called the gradient and it is a vector in $mathbb{R}^n$. It is a generalisation of the derivative in a one-dimensional setting.
The total derivative (what you called differential), in the case where the codomain is one-dimensional, is simply a scalar and is the result of multiplying the gradient $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ with a vector $vec{v} in mathbb{R}^n $ (vetor multiplication). It represents the linear approximation of the variation of f when the the coordinates vary by $vec{v}$.
Example
$f(x,y) = x^2+ y^2$, then $nabla f(x,y) = (2x,2y)$. If you consider the point (1,1), then $nabla f(1,1) = (2,2)$ . If you have a variation of the coordinates by the vector $vec{v}= (3,3)$, so you go from $(1,1)$ to $(4,4)$, then your linear approximation of the variation of the function is $ (2,2)*(3,3) = <(2,2),(3,3)> = 12$. This means that the differential (linear approximation of the variation) is of 12.
So if you compute $f(1,1) + nabla f(1,1)*(3,3) = 14$, you obtain a linear approximation of $f(4,4) = 32$. Now this is a bad approximation because we only took the first-order derivative in consideration (look at Taylor Series for more detail on it). If instead we had $f(x,y) = 2x + 2y$, you would see that the linear approximation would give you the exact value.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm going to try to answer this:
If you consider a function $f:mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}$, then the vector of its partial derivatives, $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ is called the gradient and it is a vector in $mathbb{R}^n$. It is a generalisation of the derivative in a one-dimensional setting.
The total derivative (what you called differential), in the case where the codomain is one-dimensional, is simply a scalar and is the result of multiplying the gradient $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ with a vector $vec{v} in mathbb{R}^n $ (vetor multiplication). It represents the linear approximation of the variation of f when the the coordinates vary by $vec{v}$.
Example
$f(x,y) = x^2+ y^2$, then $nabla f(x,y) = (2x,2y)$. If you consider the point (1,1), then $nabla f(1,1) = (2,2)$ . If you have a variation of the coordinates by the vector $vec{v}= (3,3)$, so you go from $(1,1)$ to $(4,4)$, then your linear approximation of the variation of the function is $ (2,2)*(3,3) = <(2,2),(3,3)> = 12$. This means that the differential (linear approximation of the variation) is of 12.
So if you compute $f(1,1) + nabla f(1,1)*(3,3) = 14$, you obtain a linear approximation of $f(4,4) = 32$. Now this is a bad approximation because we only took the first-order derivative in consideration (look at Taylor Series for more detail on it). If instead we had $f(x,y) = 2x + 2y$, you would see that the linear approximation would give you the exact value.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm going to try to answer this:
If you consider a function $f:mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}$, then the vector of its partial derivatives, $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ is called the gradient and it is a vector in $mathbb{R}^n$. It is a generalisation of the derivative in a one-dimensional setting.
The total derivative (what you called differential), in the case where the codomain is one-dimensional, is simply a scalar and is the result of multiplying the gradient $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ with a vector $vec{v} in mathbb{R}^n $ (vetor multiplication). It represents the linear approximation of the variation of f when the the coordinates vary by $vec{v}$.
Example
$f(x,y) = x^2+ y^2$, then $nabla f(x,y) = (2x,2y)$. If you consider the point (1,1), then $nabla f(1,1) = (2,2)$ . If you have a variation of the coordinates by the vector $vec{v}= (3,3)$, so you go from $(1,1)$ to $(4,4)$, then your linear approximation of the variation of the function is $ (2,2)*(3,3) = <(2,2),(3,3)> = 12$. This means that the differential (linear approximation of the variation) is of 12.
So if you compute $f(1,1) + nabla f(1,1)*(3,3) = 14$, you obtain a linear approximation of $f(4,4) = 32$. Now this is a bad approximation because we only took the first-order derivative in consideration (look at Taylor Series for more detail on it). If instead we had $f(x,y) = 2x + 2y$, you would see that the linear approximation would give you the exact value.
$endgroup$
I'm going to try to answer this:
If you consider a function $f:mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}$, then the vector of its partial derivatives, $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ is called the gradient and it is a vector in $mathbb{R}^n$. It is a generalisation of the derivative in a one-dimensional setting.
The total derivative (what you called differential), in the case where the codomain is one-dimensional, is simply a scalar and is the result of multiplying the gradient $nabla f(x_1,.....,x_n)=(frac{partial f}{partial x_1},....,frac{partial f}{partial x_n})$ with a vector $vec{v} in mathbb{R}^n $ (vetor multiplication). It represents the linear approximation of the variation of f when the the coordinates vary by $vec{v}$.
Example
$f(x,y) = x^2+ y^2$, then $nabla f(x,y) = (2x,2y)$. If you consider the point (1,1), then $nabla f(1,1) = (2,2)$ . If you have a variation of the coordinates by the vector $vec{v}= (3,3)$, so you go from $(1,1)$ to $(4,4)$, then your linear approximation of the variation of the function is $ (2,2)*(3,3) = <(2,2),(3,3)> = 12$. This means that the differential (linear approximation of the variation) is of 12.
So if you compute $f(1,1) + nabla f(1,1)*(3,3) = 14$, you obtain a linear approximation of $f(4,4) = 32$. Now this is a bad approximation because we only took the first-order derivative in consideration (look at Taylor Series for more detail on it). If instead we had $f(x,y) = 2x + 2y$, you would see that the linear approximation would give you the exact value.
answered Jan 12 at 17:37
jffijffi
878
878
add a comment |
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
The question is not completely clear. A derivative (or gradient) is a vector. A differential is a linear map. The differential of $f$ at $(a,b)$ is the best approximation of $f$ by a linear map.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 12 at 15:51