Proof regarding Stein's and Sharachi's proof of the unit circle mapping onto the upper half plane - complex...












1












$begingroup$


I am currently working with Stein's and Shakarchi's Complex Analysis and trying to comprehend the proofs of certain theorems. But unfortunately i can't get behind the equation used in the proof of Theorem 1.2:



enter image description here



I understand why we are computing $Im(G(w))$ but i simply do not understand why it holds that $$Im(G(w)) = Re(G(u+iv))$$ even though i fully understand using $w = u+iv$ in order to compute both real part and imaginary part.



But the author simply computes the real part and claims that since $Re(G(u+iv)) > 0$ it holds that $Im(G(w)) > 0$ ?



I tried to solve it myself but i always end up having



$$Re(G(u+iv)) = frac{1-u^2-v^2}{(1-u)^2+v^2}$$ and $$Im(G(u+iv)) = frac{2v}{(1-u)^2+v^2}$$



and in order to proof we are mapping onto $mathbb{H}$ i would purely pay attention to the imaginary part, however, the author obviously uses the real part for his proof. What am i missing?



Thank you very much for any hint!










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I am currently working with Stein's and Shakarchi's Complex Analysis and trying to comprehend the proofs of certain theorems. But unfortunately i can't get behind the equation used in the proof of Theorem 1.2:



    enter image description here



    I understand why we are computing $Im(G(w))$ but i simply do not understand why it holds that $$Im(G(w)) = Re(G(u+iv))$$ even though i fully understand using $w = u+iv$ in order to compute both real part and imaginary part.



    But the author simply computes the real part and claims that since $Re(G(u+iv)) > 0$ it holds that $Im(G(w)) > 0$ ?



    I tried to solve it myself but i always end up having



    $$Re(G(u+iv)) = frac{1-u^2-v^2}{(1-u)^2+v^2}$$ and $$Im(G(u+iv)) = frac{2v}{(1-u)^2+v^2}$$



    and in order to proof we are mapping onto $mathbb{H}$ i would purely pay attention to the imaginary part, however, the author obviously uses the real part for his proof. What am i missing?



    Thank you very much for any hint!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I am currently working with Stein's and Shakarchi's Complex Analysis and trying to comprehend the proofs of certain theorems. But unfortunately i can't get behind the equation used in the proof of Theorem 1.2:



      enter image description here



      I understand why we are computing $Im(G(w))$ but i simply do not understand why it holds that $$Im(G(w)) = Re(G(u+iv))$$ even though i fully understand using $w = u+iv$ in order to compute both real part and imaginary part.



      But the author simply computes the real part and claims that since $Re(G(u+iv)) > 0$ it holds that $Im(G(w)) > 0$ ?



      I tried to solve it myself but i always end up having



      $$Re(G(u+iv)) = frac{1-u^2-v^2}{(1-u)^2+v^2}$$ and $$Im(G(u+iv)) = frac{2v}{(1-u)^2+v^2}$$



      and in order to proof we are mapping onto $mathbb{H}$ i would purely pay attention to the imaginary part, however, the author obviously uses the real part for his proof. What am i missing?



      Thank you very much for any hint!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am currently working with Stein's and Shakarchi's Complex Analysis and trying to comprehend the proofs of certain theorems. But unfortunately i can't get behind the equation used in the proof of Theorem 1.2:



      enter image description here



      I understand why we are computing $Im(G(w))$ but i simply do not understand why it holds that $$Im(G(w)) = Re(G(u+iv))$$ even though i fully understand using $w = u+iv$ in order to compute both real part and imaginary part.



      But the author simply computes the real part and claims that since $Re(G(u+iv)) > 0$ it holds that $Im(G(w)) > 0$ ?



      I tried to solve it myself but i always end up having



      $$Re(G(u+iv)) = frac{1-u^2-v^2}{(1-u)^2+v^2}$$ and $$Im(G(u+iv)) = frac{2v}{(1-u)^2+v^2}$$



      and in order to proof we are mapping onto $mathbb{H}$ i would purely pay attention to the imaginary part, however, the author obviously uses the real part for his proof. What am i missing?



      Thank you very much for any hint!







      complex-analysis complex-geometry






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      asked Jan 12 at 23:37









      ZestZest

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          $begingroup$

          He is just using the fact that $Im (i(a+ib))=Re (a+ib)$ for any $a,b in mathbb R$. Take $a+ib =frac {1-w} {1+w}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Hello Kavi Rama Murthy, that's great. I didn't know that. Thank you very much for your help. I might return with a question tomorrow maybe, but for now i think i understood. thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Zest
            Jan 12 at 23:52












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          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          He is just using the fact that $Im (i(a+ib))=Re (a+ib)$ for any $a,b in mathbb R$. Take $a+ib =frac {1-w} {1+w}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Hello Kavi Rama Murthy, that's great. I didn't know that. Thank you very much for your help. I might return with a question tomorrow maybe, but for now i think i understood. thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Zest
            Jan 12 at 23:52
















          2












          $begingroup$

          He is just using the fact that $Im (i(a+ib))=Re (a+ib)$ for any $a,b in mathbb R$. Take $a+ib =frac {1-w} {1+w}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Hello Kavi Rama Murthy, that's great. I didn't know that. Thank you very much for your help. I might return with a question tomorrow maybe, but for now i think i understood. thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Zest
            Jan 12 at 23:52














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          He is just using the fact that $Im (i(a+ib))=Re (a+ib)$ for any $a,b in mathbb R$. Take $a+ib =frac {1-w} {1+w}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          He is just using the fact that $Im (i(a+ib))=Re (a+ib)$ for any $a,b in mathbb R$. Take $a+ib =frac {1-w} {1+w}$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 12 at 23:40









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          74.9k53270




          74.9k53270












          • $begingroup$
            Hello Kavi Rama Murthy, that's great. I didn't know that. Thank you very much for your help. I might return with a question tomorrow maybe, but for now i think i understood. thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Zest
            Jan 12 at 23:52


















          • $begingroup$
            Hello Kavi Rama Murthy, that's great. I didn't know that. Thank you very much for your help. I might return with a question tomorrow maybe, but for now i think i understood. thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Zest
            Jan 12 at 23:52
















          $begingroup$
          Hello Kavi Rama Murthy, that's great. I didn't know that. Thank you very much for your help. I might return with a question tomorrow maybe, but for now i think i understood. thanks again!
          $endgroup$
          – Zest
          Jan 12 at 23:52




          $begingroup$
          Hello Kavi Rama Murthy, that's great. I didn't know that. Thank you very much for your help. I might return with a question tomorrow maybe, but for now i think i understood. thanks again!
          $endgroup$
          – Zest
          Jan 12 at 23:52


















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