Vector Fields as Differential Operators












2












$begingroup$


Given a manifold $mathcal{M}$, the notion of a vector field $xi$ on $mathcal{M}$ can be interpreted as a collection of arrows on the manifold. In the book The Road to Reality by Roger Penrose, Chapter 12, Section 4, he mentions that the vector field $xi$ can act on any (smooth) scalar field $Phi$ to produce another scalar field $xi(Phi)$ in the manner of a differential operator. He uses the following definition:




The interpretation of $xi(Phi)$ is to be the 'rate of increase' of $Phi$ in the direction indicated by the arrows that represent $xi$ ...


The book would like the reader to show that the scalar product
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}

is consistent with $dPhicdotxi=xi(Phi)$, in the particular case where $alpha=dPhi$ using the chain rule, but unfortunately without knowing the precise definition of $xi(Phi)$, I have no way to prove this. There seems to be a similarity between this definition and the directional derivative, and I was always taught that the directional derivitive in multivariable calculus was $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$ by definition. But if that were true, there would be nothing to prove.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You can think of $text{d}Phicdotxi=xi(Phi)$ as being a generalization of $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$. To a first order approximation, the rate of increase of $Phi$ in the direction of $xi$ at a specific point $P$ is a linear function of $xi$. We denote this linear function by the covector $text{d}Phi$.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 15 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    @gandalf61 Okay, I thought that it was related to directional derivatives. How is this definition more general though? It seems to me that they're identical.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 11:21












  • $begingroup$
    @Alex_S $nabla$ can be applied to functions from $mathbb{R}^n$ to $mathbb{R}$ whereas $text{d} Phi$ can be applied to scalar functions on any differentiable manifold, which only needs to resemble $mathbb{R}^n$ locally.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 15 at 12:25
















2












$begingroup$


Given a manifold $mathcal{M}$, the notion of a vector field $xi$ on $mathcal{M}$ can be interpreted as a collection of arrows on the manifold. In the book The Road to Reality by Roger Penrose, Chapter 12, Section 4, he mentions that the vector field $xi$ can act on any (smooth) scalar field $Phi$ to produce another scalar field $xi(Phi)$ in the manner of a differential operator. He uses the following definition:




The interpretation of $xi(Phi)$ is to be the 'rate of increase' of $Phi$ in the direction indicated by the arrows that represent $xi$ ...


The book would like the reader to show that the scalar product
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}

is consistent with $dPhicdotxi=xi(Phi)$, in the particular case where $alpha=dPhi$ using the chain rule, but unfortunately without knowing the precise definition of $xi(Phi)$, I have no way to prove this. There seems to be a similarity between this definition and the directional derivative, and I was always taught that the directional derivitive in multivariable calculus was $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$ by definition. But if that were true, there would be nothing to prove.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You can think of $text{d}Phicdotxi=xi(Phi)$ as being a generalization of $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$. To a first order approximation, the rate of increase of $Phi$ in the direction of $xi$ at a specific point $P$ is a linear function of $xi$. We denote this linear function by the covector $text{d}Phi$.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 15 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    @gandalf61 Okay, I thought that it was related to directional derivatives. How is this definition more general though? It seems to me that they're identical.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 11:21












  • $begingroup$
    @Alex_S $nabla$ can be applied to functions from $mathbb{R}^n$ to $mathbb{R}$ whereas $text{d} Phi$ can be applied to scalar functions on any differentiable manifold, which only needs to resemble $mathbb{R}^n$ locally.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 15 at 12:25














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Given a manifold $mathcal{M}$, the notion of a vector field $xi$ on $mathcal{M}$ can be interpreted as a collection of arrows on the manifold. In the book The Road to Reality by Roger Penrose, Chapter 12, Section 4, he mentions that the vector field $xi$ can act on any (smooth) scalar field $Phi$ to produce another scalar field $xi(Phi)$ in the manner of a differential operator. He uses the following definition:




The interpretation of $xi(Phi)$ is to be the 'rate of increase' of $Phi$ in the direction indicated by the arrows that represent $xi$ ...


The book would like the reader to show that the scalar product
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}

is consistent with $dPhicdotxi=xi(Phi)$, in the particular case where $alpha=dPhi$ using the chain rule, but unfortunately without knowing the precise definition of $xi(Phi)$, I have no way to prove this. There seems to be a similarity between this definition and the directional derivative, and I was always taught that the directional derivitive in multivariable calculus was $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$ by definition. But if that were true, there would be nothing to prove.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Given a manifold $mathcal{M}$, the notion of a vector field $xi$ on $mathcal{M}$ can be interpreted as a collection of arrows on the manifold. In the book The Road to Reality by Roger Penrose, Chapter 12, Section 4, he mentions that the vector field $xi$ can act on any (smooth) scalar field $Phi$ to produce another scalar field $xi(Phi)$ in the manner of a differential operator. He uses the following definition:




The interpretation of $xi(Phi)$ is to be the 'rate of increase' of $Phi$ in the direction indicated by the arrows that represent $xi$ ...


The book would like the reader to show that the scalar product
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}

is consistent with $dPhicdotxi=xi(Phi)$, in the particular case where $alpha=dPhi$ using the chain rule, but unfortunately without knowing the precise definition of $xi(Phi)$, I have no way to prove this. There seems to be a similarity between this definition and the directional derivative, and I was always taught that the directional derivitive in multivariable calculus was $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$ by definition. But if that were true, there would be nothing to prove.







vector-fields differential-operators






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 15 at 10:46







Alex S

















asked Jan 15 at 10:23









Alex SAlex S

35518




35518












  • $begingroup$
    You can think of $text{d}Phicdotxi=xi(Phi)$ as being a generalization of $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$. To a first order approximation, the rate of increase of $Phi$ in the direction of $xi$ at a specific point $P$ is a linear function of $xi$. We denote this linear function by the covector $text{d}Phi$.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 15 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    @gandalf61 Okay, I thought that it was related to directional derivatives. How is this definition more general though? It seems to me that they're identical.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 11:21












  • $begingroup$
    @Alex_S $nabla$ can be applied to functions from $mathbb{R}^n$ to $mathbb{R}$ whereas $text{d} Phi$ can be applied to scalar functions on any differentiable manifold, which only needs to resemble $mathbb{R}^n$ locally.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 15 at 12:25


















  • $begingroup$
    You can think of $text{d}Phicdotxi=xi(Phi)$ as being a generalization of $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$. To a first order approximation, the rate of increase of $Phi$ in the direction of $xi$ at a specific point $P$ is a linear function of $xi$. We denote this linear function by the covector $text{d}Phi$.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 15 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    @gandalf61 Okay, I thought that it was related to directional derivatives. How is this definition more general though? It seems to me that they're identical.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 11:21












  • $begingroup$
    @Alex_S $nabla$ can be applied to functions from $mathbb{R}^n$ to $mathbb{R}$ whereas $text{d} Phi$ can be applied to scalar functions on any differentiable manifold, which only needs to resemble $mathbb{R}^n$ locally.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 15 at 12:25
















$begingroup$
You can think of $text{d}Phicdotxi=xi(Phi)$ as being a generalization of $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$. To a first order approximation, the rate of increase of $Phi$ in the direction of $xi$ at a specific point $P$ is a linear function of $xi$. We denote this linear function by the covector $text{d}Phi$.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 15 at 10:51




$begingroup$
You can think of $text{d}Phicdotxi=xi(Phi)$ as being a generalization of $nabla_mathbf{v}f=nabla fcdotmathbf{v}$. To a first order approximation, the rate of increase of $Phi$ in the direction of $xi$ at a specific point $P$ is a linear function of $xi$. We denote this linear function by the covector $text{d}Phi$.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 15 at 10:51












$begingroup$
@gandalf61 Okay, I thought that it was related to directional derivatives. How is this definition more general though? It seems to me that they're identical.
$endgroup$
– Alex S
Jan 15 at 11:21






$begingroup$
@gandalf61 Okay, I thought that it was related to directional derivatives. How is this definition more general though? It seems to me that they're identical.
$endgroup$
– Alex S
Jan 15 at 11:21














$begingroup$
@Alex_S $nabla$ can be applied to functions from $mathbb{R}^n$ to $mathbb{R}$ whereas $text{d} Phi$ can be applied to scalar functions on any differentiable manifold, which only needs to resemble $mathbb{R}^n$ locally.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 15 at 12:25




$begingroup$
@Alex_S $nabla$ can be applied to functions from $mathbb{R}^n$ to $mathbb{R}$ whereas $text{d} Phi$ can be applied to scalar functions on any differentiable manifold, which only needs to resemble $mathbb{R}^n$ locally.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 15 at 12:25










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

We begin by defining the scalar product of a covector and a vector as
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}



Since $alpha=dPhi$, we have
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi&=dPhicdotxi
end{align*}

The covector $dPhi$ is equal to
begin{align*}
dPhi=left(frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1},frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2},ldots,frac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}right)
end{align*}

Using the expression for the scalar product defined earlier,
begin{align*}
dPhicdotxi&=frac{partialPhi}{partial x_1}xi^1+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_2}xi^2+cdots+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_n}xi^n
end{align*}

The vector field $xi$ can be represented by its set of components in terms of partial differential operators, and we will of course choose the coordinates to be the same as the previously used coordinates for $Phi$:
begin{align*}
xi=xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}
end{align*}

Therefore,
begin{align*}
xi(Phi)&=left(xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}right)Phi\
&=xi^1frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}
end{align*}



Hence, the definition of the scalar product implies $dPhicdot xi=xi(Phi)$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Note that $alpha=dPhi$ is a 1-form, i.e. a (covector)-field, and the 'scalar product' above is a natural map which inputs a covector and a vector, and is not an inner product of two vectors.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Jan 15 at 13:14












  • $begingroup$
    @Berci Yes, that was mentioned in the text. It should be clear by the use of indices though. Also I forgot to mention that $mathcal{M}$ is a finite dimensional manifold so doesn't every one-form essentially act like an inner product with respect to vectors? I read somewhere it has to do with the Riesz representation theorem but I'm not sure.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 13:50














Your Answer








StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});

function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});


}
});














draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3074291%2fvector-fields-as-differential-operators%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

We begin by defining the scalar product of a covector and a vector as
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}



Since $alpha=dPhi$, we have
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi&=dPhicdotxi
end{align*}

The covector $dPhi$ is equal to
begin{align*}
dPhi=left(frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1},frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2},ldots,frac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}right)
end{align*}

Using the expression for the scalar product defined earlier,
begin{align*}
dPhicdotxi&=frac{partialPhi}{partial x_1}xi^1+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_2}xi^2+cdots+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_n}xi^n
end{align*}

The vector field $xi$ can be represented by its set of components in terms of partial differential operators, and we will of course choose the coordinates to be the same as the previously used coordinates for $Phi$:
begin{align*}
xi=xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}
end{align*}

Therefore,
begin{align*}
xi(Phi)&=left(xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}right)Phi\
&=xi^1frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}
end{align*}



Hence, the definition of the scalar product implies $dPhicdot xi=xi(Phi)$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Note that $alpha=dPhi$ is a 1-form, i.e. a (covector)-field, and the 'scalar product' above is a natural map which inputs a covector and a vector, and is not an inner product of two vectors.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Jan 15 at 13:14












  • $begingroup$
    @Berci Yes, that was mentioned in the text. It should be clear by the use of indices though. Also I forgot to mention that $mathcal{M}$ is a finite dimensional manifold so doesn't every one-form essentially act like an inner product with respect to vectors? I read somewhere it has to do with the Riesz representation theorem but I'm not sure.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 13:50


















1












$begingroup$

We begin by defining the scalar product of a covector and a vector as
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}



Since $alpha=dPhi$, we have
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi&=dPhicdotxi
end{align*}

The covector $dPhi$ is equal to
begin{align*}
dPhi=left(frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1},frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2},ldots,frac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}right)
end{align*}

Using the expression for the scalar product defined earlier,
begin{align*}
dPhicdotxi&=frac{partialPhi}{partial x_1}xi^1+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_2}xi^2+cdots+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_n}xi^n
end{align*}

The vector field $xi$ can be represented by its set of components in terms of partial differential operators, and we will of course choose the coordinates to be the same as the previously used coordinates for $Phi$:
begin{align*}
xi=xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}
end{align*}

Therefore,
begin{align*}
xi(Phi)&=left(xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}right)Phi\
&=xi^1frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}
end{align*}



Hence, the definition of the scalar product implies $dPhicdot xi=xi(Phi)$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Note that $alpha=dPhi$ is a 1-form, i.e. a (covector)-field, and the 'scalar product' above is a natural map which inputs a covector and a vector, and is not an inner product of two vectors.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Jan 15 at 13:14












  • $begingroup$
    @Berci Yes, that was mentioned in the text. It should be clear by the use of indices though. Also I forgot to mention that $mathcal{M}$ is a finite dimensional manifold so doesn't every one-form essentially act like an inner product with respect to vectors? I read somewhere it has to do with the Riesz representation theorem but I'm not sure.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 13:50
















1












1








1





$begingroup$

We begin by defining the scalar product of a covector and a vector as
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}



Since $alpha=dPhi$, we have
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi&=dPhicdotxi
end{align*}

The covector $dPhi$ is equal to
begin{align*}
dPhi=left(frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1},frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2},ldots,frac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}right)
end{align*}

Using the expression for the scalar product defined earlier,
begin{align*}
dPhicdotxi&=frac{partialPhi}{partial x_1}xi^1+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_2}xi^2+cdots+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_n}xi^n
end{align*}

The vector field $xi$ can be represented by its set of components in terms of partial differential operators, and we will of course choose the coordinates to be the same as the previously used coordinates for $Phi$:
begin{align*}
xi=xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}
end{align*}

Therefore,
begin{align*}
xi(Phi)&=left(xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}right)Phi\
&=xi^1frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}
end{align*}



Hence, the definition of the scalar product implies $dPhicdot xi=xi(Phi)$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



We begin by defining the scalar product of a covector and a vector as
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi=alpha_1xi^1+alpha_2xi^2+cdots+alpha_nxi^n
end{align*}



Since $alpha=dPhi$, we have
begin{align*}
alphacdotxi&=dPhicdotxi
end{align*}

The covector $dPhi$ is equal to
begin{align*}
dPhi=left(frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1},frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2},ldots,frac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}right)
end{align*}

Using the expression for the scalar product defined earlier,
begin{align*}
dPhicdotxi&=frac{partialPhi}{partial x_1}xi^1+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_2}xi^2+cdots+frac{partialPhi}{partial x_n}xi^n
end{align*}

The vector field $xi$ can be represented by its set of components in terms of partial differential operators, and we will of course choose the coordinates to be the same as the previously used coordinates for $Phi$:
begin{align*}
xi=xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}
end{align*}

Therefore,
begin{align*}
xi(Phi)&=left(xi^1frac{partial}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partial}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partial}{partial x^n}right)Phi\
&=xi^1frac{partialPhi}{partial x^1}+xi^2frac{partialPhi}{partial x^2}+cdots+xi^nfrac{partialPhi}{partial x^n}
end{align*}



Hence, the definition of the scalar product implies $dPhicdot xi=xi(Phi)$ as required.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 17 at 9:45

























answered Jan 15 at 11:13









Alex SAlex S

35518




35518












  • $begingroup$
    Note that $alpha=dPhi$ is a 1-form, i.e. a (covector)-field, and the 'scalar product' above is a natural map which inputs a covector and a vector, and is not an inner product of two vectors.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Jan 15 at 13:14












  • $begingroup$
    @Berci Yes, that was mentioned in the text. It should be clear by the use of indices though. Also I forgot to mention that $mathcal{M}$ is a finite dimensional manifold so doesn't every one-form essentially act like an inner product with respect to vectors? I read somewhere it has to do with the Riesz representation theorem but I'm not sure.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 13:50




















  • $begingroup$
    Note that $alpha=dPhi$ is a 1-form, i.e. a (covector)-field, and the 'scalar product' above is a natural map which inputs a covector and a vector, and is not an inner product of two vectors.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Jan 15 at 13:14












  • $begingroup$
    @Berci Yes, that was mentioned in the text. It should be clear by the use of indices though. Also I forgot to mention that $mathcal{M}$ is a finite dimensional manifold so doesn't every one-form essentially act like an inner product with respect to vectors? I read somewhere it has to do with the Riesz representation theorem but I'm not sure.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Jan 15 at 13:50


















$begingroup$
Note that $alpha=dPhi$ is a 1-form, i.e. a (covector)-field, and the 'scalar product' above is a natural map which inputs a covector and a vector, and is not an inner product of two vectors.
$endgroup$
– Berci
Jan 15 at 13:14






$begingroup$
Note that $alpha=dPhi$ is a 1-form, i.e. a (covector)-field, and the 'scalar product' above is a natural map which inputs a covector and a vector, and is not an inner product of two vectors.
$endgroup$
– Berci
Jan 15 at 13:14














$begingroup$
@Berci Yes, that was mentioned in the text. It should be clear by the use of indices though. Also I forgot to mention that $mathcal{M}$ is a finite dimensional manifold so doesn't every one-form essentially act like an inner product with respect to vectors? I read somewhere it has to do with the Riesz representation theorem but I'm not sure.
$endgroup$
– Alex S
Jan 15 at 13:50






$begingroup$
@Berci Yes, that was mentioned in the text. It should be clear by the use of indices though. Also I forgot to mention that $mathcal{M}$ is a finite dimensional manifold so doesn't every one-form essentially act like an inner product with respect to vectors? I read somewhere it has to do with the Riesz representation theorem but I'm not sure.
$endgroup$
– Alex S
Jan 15 at 13:50




















draft saved

draft discarded




















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3074291%2fvector-fields-as-differential-operators%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Bressuire

Cabo Verde

Gyllenstierna