Weierstrass's approximation theorem with polynomials $p_n$ of degree $n$ for all $n.$












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By Weierstrass's approximation theorem, every continuous function $f$ supported on an compact interval can be uniform approximated by polynomials. But, is it true that for every continuous $f$ on $[0,1]$, there exist a sequence of polynomials ${f_n}_{n=0}^{infty}$ with $f_N=sum_{n=0}^N a_n x^n$ ($a_N neq 0$) such that $f_n$ converges to $f$?



My attempt:



For function $f=0$ , we can let $g_n=frac{e^x}{n}$ and let $$f_N=frac{sum_0^N frac{1}{n!}x^n}{N}$$ then we can find $f_n$ converges to $0$ uniformly. For each continuous function $g$ supported on $[0,1]$, if we can find a sequence of polynomials ${h_n }_{n=0}^{infty}$ such that $h_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly and the degree of $g_n$ is less than $n$, then with $f_N$ defined above, let $g_n=h_n+f_n$. We can prove that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly.



So, to prove the assertion above, it suffice to prove that following statement :

For every continuous function $f$ supported on $[0,1]$, we can find a sequence of polynomials ${f_n }_{n=0}^{infty}$ with the degree of $f_n$ less than $n+1$, such that $f_n$ converges to $f$.



Let ${g_n }$ be polynomials converges to $f$ uniformly, and let $k(n)$ denote the degree of $g_n$. Then we can contrust $f_n$ such that $f_0=f_1=...=f_{k(0)-1}=0$, $f_{k(0)}=g_0$. For $n={1,2,3,...} $ , if $k(n)le n$ then $f_{n}=g_{n}$. If $k(n) gt n$ , let $f_n=f_{n+1}=...=f_{k(n)-1}=f_{n-1}$ and $f_{k(n)}=g_n$. Since $f_n$ conveges to $f$ uniformly, the proof is complete. Is my proof correct?










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  • $begingroup$
    "closed interval" should be "closed bounded interval"
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 16 at 21:20










  • $begingroup$
    I changed your title to more accurately describe the result. If you don't like the change, feel free to go back to the originaL.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 17 at 19:27










  • $begingroup$
    Very appreciate for you help , yours title is exactly what I want to ask .
    $endgroup$
    – J.Guo
    Jan 18 at 13:06










  • $begingroup$
    I upvoted your question; never thought about it before.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 18 at 18:20
















1












$begingroup$


By Weierstrass's approximation theorem, every continuous function $f$ supported on an compact interval can be uniform approximated by polynomials. But, is it true that for every continuous $f$ on $[0,1]$, there exist a sequence of polynomials ${f_n}_{n=0}^{infty}$ with $f_N=sum_{n=0}^N a_n x^n$ ($a_N neq 0$) such that $f_n$ converges to $f$?



My attempt:



For function $f=0$ , we can let $g_n=frac{e^x}{n}$ and let $$f_N=frac{sum_0^N frac{1}{n!}x^n}{N}$$ then we can find $f_n$ converges to $0$ uniformly. For each continuous function $g$ supported on $[0,1]$, if we can find a sequence of polynomials ${h_n }_{n=0}^{infty}$ such that $h_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly and the degree of $g_n$ is less than $n$, then with $f_N$ defined above, let $g_n=h_n+f_n$. We can prove that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly.



So, to prove the assertion above, it suffice to prove that following statement :

For every continuous function $f$ supported on $[0,1]$, we can find a sequence of polynomials ${f_n }_{n=0}^{infty}$ with the degree of $f_n$ less than $n+1$, such that $f_n$ converges to $f$.



Let ${g_n }$ be polynomials converges to $f$ uniformly, and let $k(n)$ denote the degree of $g_n$. Then we can contrust $f_n$ such that $f_0=f_1=...=f_{k(0)-1}=0$, $f_{k(0)}=g_0$. For $n={1,2,3,...} $ , if $k(n)le n$ then $f_{n}=g_{n}$. If $k(n) gt n$ , let $f_n=f_{n+1}=...=f_{k(n)-1}=f_{n-1}$ and $f_{k(n)}=g_n$. Since $f_n$ conveges to $f$ uniformly, the proof is complete. Is my proof correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    "closed interval" should be "closed bounded interval"
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 16 at 21:20










  • $begingroup$
    I changed your title to more accurately describe the result. If you don't like the change, feel free to go back to the originaL.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 17 at 19:27










  • $begingroup$
    Very appreciate for you help , yours title is exactly what I want to ask .
    $endgroup$
    – J.Guo
    Jan 18 at 13:06










  • $begingroup$
    I upvoted your question; never thought about it before.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 18 at 18:20














1












1








1





$begingroup$


By Weierstrass's approximation theorem, every continuous function $f$ supported on an compact interval can be uniform approximated by polynomials. But, is it true that for every continuous $f$ on $[0,1]$, there exist a sequence of polynomials ${f_n}_{n=0}^{infty}$ with $f_N=sum_{n=0}^N a_n x^n$ ($a_N neq 0$) such that $f_n$ converges to $f$?



My attempt:



For function $f=0$ , we can let $g_n=frac{e^x}{n}$ and let $$f_N=frac{sum_0^N frac{1}{n!}x^n}{N}$$ then we can find $f_n$ converges to $0$ uniformly. For each continuous function $g$ supported on $[0,1]$, if we can find a sequence of polynomials ${h_n }_{n=0}^{infty}$ such that $h_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly and the degree of $g_n$ is less than $n$, then with $f_N$ defined above, let $g_n=h_n+f_n$. We can prove that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly.



So, to prove the assertion above, it suffice to prove that following statement :

For every continuous function $f$ supported on $[0,1]$, we can find a sequence of polynomials ${f_n }_{n=0}^{infty}$ with the degree of $f_n$ less than $n+1$, such that $f_n$ converges to $f$.



Let ${g_n }$ be polynomials converges to $f$ uniformly, and let $k(n)$ denote the degree of $g_n$. Then we can contrust $f_n$ such that $f_0=f_1=...=f_{k(0)-1}=0$, $f_{k(0)}=g_0$. For $n={1,2,3,...} $ , if $k(n)le n$ then $f_{n}=g_{n}$. If $k(n) gt n$ , let $f_n=f_{n+1}=...=f_{k(n)-1}=f_{n-1}$ and $f_{k(n)}=g_n$. Since $f_n$ conveges to $f$ uniformly, the proof is complete. Is my proof correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




By Weierstrass's approximation theorem, every continuous function $f$ supported on an compact interval can be uniform approximated by polynomials. But, is it true that for every continuous $f$ on $[0,1]$, there exist a sequence of polynomials ${f_n}_{n=0}^{infty}$ with $f_N=sum_{n=0}^N a_n x^n$ ($a_N neq 0$) such that $f_n$ converges to $f$?



My attempt:



For function $f=0$ , we can let $g_n=frac{e^x}{n}$ and let $$f_N=frac{sum_0^N frac{1}{n!}x^n}{N}$$ then we can find $f_n$ converges to $0$ uniformly. For each continuous function $g$ supported on $[0,1]$, if we can find a sequence of polynomials ${h_n }_{n=0}^{infty}$ such that $h_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly and the degree of $g_n$ is less than $n$, then with $f_N$ defined above, let $g_n=h_n+f_n$. We can prove that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly.



So, to prove the assertion above, it suffice to prove that following statement :

For every continuous function $f$ supported on $[0,1]$, we can find a sequence of polynomials ${f_n }_{n=0}^{infty}$ with the degree of $f_n$ less than $n+1$, such that $f_n$ converges to $f$.



Let ${g_n }$ be polynomials converges to $f$ uniformly, and let $k(n)$ denote the degree of $g_n$. Then we can contrust $f_n$ such that $f_0=f_1=...=f_{k(0)-1}=0$, $f_{k(0)}=g_0$. For $n={1,2,3,...} $ , if $k(n)le n$ then $f_{n}=g_{n}$. If $k(n) gt n$ , let $f_n=f_{n+1}=...=f_{k(n)-1}=f_{n-1}$ and $f_{k(n)}=g_n$. Since $f_n$ conveges to $f$ uniformly, the proof is complete. Is my proof correct?







complex-analysis weierstrass-approximation






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edited Jan 18 at 13:06







J.Guo

















asked Jan 15 at 10:34









J.GuoJ.Guo

4579




4579












  • $begingroup$
    "closed interval" should be "closed bounded interval"
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 16 at 21:20










  • $begingroup$
    I changed your title to more accurately describe the result. If you don't like the change, feel free to go back to the originaL.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 17 at 19:27










  • $begingroup$
    Very appreciate for you help , yours title is exactly what I want to ask .
    $endgroup$
    – J.Guo
    Jan 18 at 13:06










  • $begingroup$
    I upvoted your question; never thought about it before.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 18 at 18:20


















  • $begingroup$
    "closed interval" should be "closed bounded interval"
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 16 at 21:20










  • $begingroup$
    I changed your title to more accurately describe the result. If you don't like the change, feel free to go back to the originaL.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 17 at 19:27










  • $begingroup$
    Very appreciate for you help , yours title is exactly what I want to ask .
    $endgroup$
    – J.Guo
    Jan 18 at 13:06










  • $begingroup$
    I upvoted your question; never thought about it before.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 18 at 18:20
















$begingroup$
"closed interval" should be "closed bounded interval"
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 16 at 21:20




$begingroup$
"closed interval" should be "closed bounded interval"
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 16 at 21:20












$begingroup$
I changed your title to more accurately describe the result. If you don't like the change, feel free to go back to the originaL.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 17 at 19:27




$begingroup$
I changed your title to more accurately describe the result. If you don't like the change, feel free to go back to the originaL.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 17 at 19:27












$begingroup$
Very appreciate for you help , yours title is exactly what I want to ask .
$endgroup$
– J.Guo
Jan 18 at 13:06




$begingroup$
Very appreciate for you help , yours title is exactly what I want to ask .
$endgroup$
– J.Guo
Jan 18 at 13:06












$begingroup$
I upvoted your question; never thought about it before.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 18 at 18:20




$begingroup$
I upvoted your question; never thought about it before.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 18 at 18:20










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I think you have the right ideas, but I'm unsure about some of what you're doing. It may be just fine, but the notation is a little scrambled.



Here's what I did. Suppose f is continuous on $[a,b].$ Then by Weierstrass, there is a sequence of polynomials $p_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Suppose the degrees of the $p_n$ are unbounded. Then we can choose a subsequence $q_n$ of $p_n$ such that the degrees of the $q_n$ strictly increase to $infty.$ Clearly $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Now add terms of the form $x^k/k!,$ as you were doing, to get a sequence of the desired form. Suppose for example $text { deg } q_1=4, text { deg } q_2=8,$ $ text { deg } q_3=9, text { deg } q_4=12,dots$ Then we construct a new sequence as below:



$$1,x,x^2/2!,x^3/3!, q_1(x), q_1(x)+x^5/5!, q_1(x)+x^6/6!, q_1(x)+x^7/7!,$$ $$ q_2(x), q_3(x), q_3(x)+x^{10}/10!, q_3(x)+x^{11}/11!, q_4(x), dots $$



This sequence does what you want.



If the degress of the $p_n$ are bounded, say by $d,$ then we can define



$$q_n(x) = p_n(x) + x^{d+n}/(d+n)!.$$



Then $deg q_n = d+n$ and $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Since the degrees increase to $infty,$ the above applies to $q_n$ and again we get the result.






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    $begingroup$

    I think you have the right ideas, but I'm unsure about some of what you're doing. It may be just fine, but the notation is a little scrambled.



    Here's what I did. Suppose f is continuous on $[a,b].$ Then by Weierstrass, there is a sequence of polynomials $p_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Suppose the degrees of the $p_n$ are unbounded. Then we can choose a subsequence $q_n$ of $p_n$ such that the degrees of the $q_n$ strictly increase to $infty.$ Clearly $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Now add terms of the form $x^k/k!,$ as you were doing, to get a sequence of the desired form. Suppose for example $text { deg } q_1=4, text { deg } q_2=8,$ $ text { deg } q_3=9, text { deg } q_4=12,dots$ Then we construct a new sequence as below:



    $$1,x,x^2/2!,x^3/3!, q_1(x), q_1(x)+x^5/5!, q_1(x)+x^6/6!, q_1(x)+x^7/7!,$$ $$ q_2(x), q_3(x), q_3(x)+x^{10}/10!, q_3(x)+x^{11}/11!, q_4(x), dots $$



    This sequence does what you want.



    If the degress of the $p_n$ are bounded, say by $d,$ then we can define



    $$q_n(x) = p_n(x) + x^{d+n}/(d+n)!.$$



    Then $deg q_n = d+n$ and $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Since the degrees increase to $infty,$ the above applies to $q_n$ and again we get the result.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      I think you have the right ideas, but I'm unsure about some of what you're doing. It may be just fine, but the notation is a little scrambled.



      Here's what I did. Suppose f is continuous on $[a,b].$ Then by Weierstrass, there is a sequence of polynomials $p_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Suppose the degrees of the $p_n$ are unbounded. Then we can choose a subsequence $q_n$ of $p_n$ such that the degrees of the $q_n$ strictly increase to $infty.$ Clearly $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Now add terms of the form $x^k/k!,$ as you were doing, to get a sequence of the desired form. Suppose for example $text { deg } q_1=4, text { deg } q_2=8,$ $ text { deg } q_3=9, text { deg } q_4=12,dots$ Then we construct a new sequence as below:



      $$1,x,x^2/2!,x^3/3!, q_1(x), q_1(x)+x^5/5!, q_1(x)+x^6/6!, q_1(x)+x^7/7!,$$ $$ q_2(x), q_3(x), q_3(x)+x^{10}/10!, q_3(x)+x^{11}/11!, q_4(x), dots $$



      This sequence does what you want.



      If the degress of the $p_n$ are bounded, say by $d,$ then we can define



      $$q_n(x) = p_n(x) + x^{d+n}/(d+n)!.$$



      Then $deg q_n = d+n$ and $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Since the degrees increase to $infty,$ the above applies to $q_n$ and again we get the result.






      share|cite|improve this answer











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        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        I think you have the right ideas, but I'm unsure about some of what you're doing. It may be just fine, but the notation is a little scrambled.



        Here's what I did. Suppose f is continuous on $[a,b].$ Then by Weierstrass, there is a sequence of polynomials $p_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Suppose the degrees of the $p_n$ are unbounded. Then we can choose a subsequence $q_n$ of $p_n$ such that the degrees of the $q_n$ strictly increase to $infty.$ Clearly $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Now add terms of the form $x^k/k!,$ as you were doing, to get a sequence of the desired form. Suppose for example $text { deg } q_1=4, text { deg } q_2=8,$ $ text { deg } q_3=9, text { deg } q_4=12,dots$ Then we construct a new sequence as below:



        $$1,x,x^2/2!,x^3/3!, q_1(x), q_1(x)+x^5/5!, q_1(x)+x^6/6!, q_1(x)+x^7/7!,$$ $$ q_2(x), q_3(x), q_3(x)+x^{10}/10!, q_3(x)+x^{11}/11!, q_4(x), dots $$



        This sequence does what you want.



        If the degress of the $p_n$ are bounded, say by $d,$ then we can define



        $$q_n(x) = p_n(x) + x^{d+n}/(d+n)!.$$



        Then $deg q_n = d+n$ and $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Since the degrees increase to $infty,$ the above applies to $q_n$ and again we get the result.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        I think you have the right ideas, but I'm unsure about some of what you're doing. It may be just fine, but the notation is a little scrambled.



        Here's what I did. Suppose f is continuous on $[a,b].$ Then by Weierstrass, there is a sequence of polynomials $p_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Suppose the degrees of the $p_n$ are unbounded. Then we can choose a subsequence $q_n$ of $p_n$ such that the degrees of the $q_n$ strictly increase to $infty.$ Clearly $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Now add terms of the form $x^k/k!,$ as you were doing, to get a sequence of the desired form. Suppose for example $text { deg } q_1=4, text { deg } q_2=8,$ $ text { deg } q_3=9, text { deg } q_4=12,dots$ Then we construct a new sequence as below:



        $$1,x,x^2/2!,x^3/3!, q_1(x), q_1(x)+x^5/5!, q_1(x)+x^6/6!, q_1(x)+x^7/7!,$$ $$ q_2(x), q_3(x), q_3(x)+x^{10}/10!, q_3(x)+x^{11}/11!, q_4(x), dots $$



        This sequence does what you want.



        If the degress of the $p_n$ are bounded, say by $d,$ then we can define



        $$q_n(x) = p_n(x) + x^{d+n}/(d+n)!.$$



        Then $deg q_n = d+n$ and $q_nto f$ uniformly on $[a,b].$ Since the degrees increase to $infty,$ the above applies to $q_n$ and again we get the result.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 17 at 19:23

























        answered Jan 17 at 19:17









        zhw.zhw.

        75.2k43275




        75.2k43275






























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