Laplace Transform, inverse Laplace transform differential equation
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how would you find the solution x(t) of $frac{dx}{dt} = rx + 1000sum_{i=1}^infty delta(t-i)$ for $x(0)=0$ using laplace transformation?
Am I heading in the right direction as I am stucked?
$sX(s)-rX(s) = 1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-is}$
$X(s) = frac{1000e^{-s}}{(1-e^{-s})(s-r)}$
differential-equations laplace-transform exponential-sum
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up vote
0
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how would you find the solution x(t) of $frac{dx}{dt} = rx + 1000sum_{i=1}^infty delta(t-i)$ for $x(0)=0$ using laplace transformation?
Am I heading in the right direction as I am stucked?
$sX(s)-rX(s) = 1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-is}$
$X(s) = frac{1000e^{-s}}{(1-e^{-s})(s-r)}$
differential-equations laplace-transform exponential-sum
Looks right. However how to get the solution from that is unclear. Without Laplace, you would use $$(e^{-rt}x(t))'=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-ir}δ(t−i) implies x(t)=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{(t-i)r}u(t-i),$$ and there is no way to further simplify the step discontinuities in that function, that is, to get rid of the infinite sum.
– LutzL
Dec 1 at 13:19
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
how would you find the solution x(t) of $frac{dx}{dt} = rx + 1000sum_{i=1}^infty delta(t-i)$ for $x(0)=0$ using laplace transformation?
Am I heading in the right direction as I am stucked?
$sX(s)-rX(s) = 1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-is}$
$X(s) = frac{1000e^{-s}}{(1-e^{-s})(s-r)}$
differential-equations laplace-transform exponential-sum
how would you find the solution x(t) of $frac{dx}{dt} = rx + 1000sum_{i=1}^infty delta(t-i)$ for $x(0)=0$ using laplace transformation?
Am I heading in the right direction as I am stucked?
$sX(s)-rX(s) = 1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-is}$
$X(s) = frac{1000e^{-s}}{(1-e^{-s})(s-r)}$
differential-equations laplace-transform exponential-sum
differential-equations laplace-transform exponential-sum
asked Dec 1 at 12:33
G.L.
204
204
Looks right. However how to get the solution from that is unclear. Without Laplace, you would use $$(e^{-rt}x(t))'=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-ir}δ(t−i) implies x(t)=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{(t-i)r}u(t-i),$$ and there is no way to further simplify the step discontinuities in that function, that is, to get rid of the infinite sum.
– LutzL
Dec 1 at 13:19
add a comment |
Looks right. However how to get the solution from that is unclear. Without Laplace, you would use $$(e^{-rt}x(t))'=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-ir}δ(t−i) implies x(t)=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{(t-i)r}u(t-i),$$ and there is no way to further simplify the step discontinuities in that function, that is, to get rid of the infinite sum.
– LutzL
Dec 1 at 13:19
Looks right. However how to get the solution from that is unclear. Without Laplace, you would use $$(e^{-rt}x(t))'=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-ir}δ(t−i) implies x(t)=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{(t-i)r}u(t-i),$$ and there is no way to further simplify the step discontinuities in that function, that is, to get rid of the infinite sum.
– LutzL
Dec 1 at 13:19
Looks right. However how to get the solution from that is unclear. Without Laplace, you would use $$(e^{-rt}x(t))'=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-ir}δ(t−i) implies x(t)=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{(t-i)r}u(t-i),$$ and there is no way to further simplify the step discontinuities in that function, that is, to get rid of the infinite sum.
– LutzL
Dec 1 at 13:19
add a comment |
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Looks right. However how to get the solution from that is unclear. Without Laplace, you would use $$(e^{-rt}x(t))'=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{-ir}δ(t−i) implies x(t)=1000sum_{i=1}^infty e^{(t-i)r}u(t-i),$$ and there is no way to further simplify the step discontinuities in that function, that is, to get rid of the infinite sum.
– LutzL
Dec 1 at 13:19