Continuity of implicit function $y-epsilon sin{y} =x$












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Suppose $0<epsilon<1$ such that $$y-epsilon sin{y} =x$$
is defined as a continuous function for $x$, that is, $y=y(x)$ satisfies
$$y(x)-epsilon sin{y(x)} = x$$
Prove that $y(x)$ is differentiable everywhere, and hence find the expression of $y'(x)$ implicitly.




It is easy to find $y'(x)$ by chain rule and linearity when $y(x)$ given is differentiable. I would like to show that $y(x)$ is differentiable everywhere, but since the function is implicit so I can't directly use the definition of definition:
$$lim_{xrightarrow x_0}frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0}$$
Any clue to deal with implicit function?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    For what it's worth, this is a famous transcendental equation known as Kepler's equation.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:38










  • $begingroup$
    Hint: It's the inverse function of $f(x):=x-epsilonsin x$
    $endgroup$
    – man on laptop
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:48










  • $begingroup$
    $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$
    $endgroup$
    – man on laptop
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:50










  • $begingroup$
    @manonlaptop so I have to prove the inverse function is differentiable at point $x_0$, i.e $lim _{y rightarrow y_0}frac{f^{−1}(y)−f^{−1}(y_0)}{y−y_0}$ exists? But this only implies that $f^{-1}$ is differentiable on a particular point $x_0$, but not over $mathbb{R}$. Or I just let $y in mathbb{R}$ to complete my proof?
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:31


















0












$begingroup$



Suppose $0<epsilon<1$ such that $$y-epsilon sin{y} =x$$
is defined as a continuous function for $x$, that is, $y=y(x)$ satisfies
$$y(x)-epsilon sin{y(x)} = x$$
Prove that $y(x)$ is differentiable everywhere, and hence find the expression of $y'(x)$ implicitly.




It is easy to find $y'(x)$ by chain rule and linearity when $y(x)$ given is differentiable. I would like to show that $y(x)$ is differentiable everywhere, but since the function is implicit so I can't directly use the definition of definition:
$$lim_{xrightarrow x_0}frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0}$$
Any clue to deal with implicit function?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    For what it's worth, this is a famous transcendental equation known as Kepler's equation.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:38










  • $begingroup$
    Hint: It's the inverse function of $f(x):=x-epsilonsin x$
    $endgroup$
    – man on laptop
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:48










  • $begingroup$
    $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$
    $endgroup$
    – man on laptop
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:50










  • $begingroup$
    @manonlaptop so I have to prove the inverse function is differentiable at point $x_0$, i.e $lim _{y rightarrow y_0}frac{f^{−1}(y)−f^{−1}(y_0)}{y−y_0}$ exists? But this only implies that $f^{-1}$ is differentiable on a particular point $x_0$, but not over $mathbb{R}$. Or I just let $y in mathbb{R}$ to complete my proof?
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:31
















0












0








0





$begingroup$



Suppose $0<epsilon<1$ such that $$y-epsilon sin{y} =x$$
is defined as a continuous function for $x$, that is, $y=y(x)$ satisfies
$$y(x)-epsilon sin{y(x)} = x$$
Prove that $y(x)$ is differentiable everywhere, and hence find the expression of $y'(x)$ implicitly.




It is easy to find $y'(x)$ by chain rule and linearity when $y(x)$ given is differentiable. I would like to show that $y(x)$ is differentiable everywhere, but since the function is implicit so I can't directly use the definition of definition:
$$lim_{xrightarrow x_0}frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0}$$
Any clue to deal with implicit function?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





Suppose $0<epsilon<1$ such that $$y-epsilon sin{y} =x$$
is defined as a continuous function for $x$, that is, $y=y(x)$ satisfies
$$y(x)-epsilon sin{y(x)} = x$$
Prove that $y(x)$ is differentiable everywhere, and hence find the expression of $y'(x)$ implicitly.




It is easy to find $y'(x)$ by chain rule and linearity when $y(x)$ given is differentiable. I would like to show that $y(x)$ is differentiable everywhere, but since the function is implicit so I can't directly use the definition of definition:
$$lim_{xrightarrow x_0}frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0}$$
Any clue to deal with implicit function?







derivatives implicit-function






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 19 '18 at 16:22









weilam06weilam06

9511




9511












  • $begingroup$
    For what it's worth, this is a famous transcendental equation known as Kepler's equation.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:38










  • $begingroup$
    Hint: It's the inverse function of $f(x):=x-epsilonsin x$
    $endgroup$
    – man on laptop
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:48










  • $begingroup$
    $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$
    $endgroup$
    – man on laptop
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:50










  • $begingroup$
    @manonlaptop so I have to prove the inverse function is differentiable at point $x_0$, i.e $lim _{y rightarrow y_0}frac{f^{−1}(y)−f^{−1}(y_0)}{y−y_0}$ exists? But this only implies that $f^{-1}$ is differentiable on a particular point $x_0$, but not over $mathbb{R}$. Or I just let $y in mathbb{R}$ to complete my proof?
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:31




















  • $begingroup$
    For what it's worth, this is a famous transcendental equation known as Kepler's equation.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:38










  • $begingroup$
    Hint: It's the inverse function of $f(x):=x-epsilonsin x$
    $endgroup$
    – man on laptop
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:48










  • $begingroup$
    $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$
    $endgroup$
    – man on laptop
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:50










  • $begingroup$
    @manonlaptop so I have to prove the inverse function is differentiable at point $x_0$, i.e $lim _{y rightarrow y_0}frac{f^{−1}(y)−f^{−1}(y_0)}{y−y_0}$ exists? But this only implies that $f^{-1}$ is differentiable on a particular point $x_0$, but not over $mathbb{R}$. Or I just let $y in mathbb{R}$ to complete my proof?
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:31


















$begingroup$
For what it's worth, this is a famous transcendental equation known as Kepler's equation.
$endgroup$
– Dave L. Renfro
Dec 19 '18 at 16:38




$begingroup$
For what it's worth, this is a famous transcendental equation known as Kepler's equation.
$endgroup$
– Dave L. Renfro
Dec 19 '18 at 16:38












$begingroup$
Hint: It's the inverse function of $f(x):=x-epsilonsin x$
$endgroup$
– man on laptop
Dec 19 '18 at 16:48




$begingroup$
Hint: It's the inverse function of $f(x):=x-epsilonsin x$
$endgroup$
– man on laptop
Dec 19 '18 at 16:48












$begingroup$
$f'(x)>0$ for all $x$
$endgroup$
– man on laptop
Dec 19 '18 at 16:50




$begingroup$
$f'(x)>0$ for all $x$
$endgroup$
– man on laptop
Dec 19 '18 at 16:50












$begingroup$
@manonlaptop so I have to prove the inverse function is differentiable at point $x_0$, i.e $lim _{y rightarrow y_0}frac{f^{−1}(y)−f^{−1}(y_0)}{y−y_0}$ exists? But this only implies that $f^{-1}$ is differentiable on a particular point $x_0$, but not over $mathbb{R}$. Or I just let $y in mathbb{R}$ to complete my proof?
$endgroup$
– weilam06
Dec 20 '18 at 8:31






$begingroup$
@manonlaptop so I have to prove the inverse function is differentiable at point $x_0$, i.e $lim _{y rightarrow y_0}frac{f^{−1}(y)−f^{−1}(y_0)}{y−y_0}$ exists? But this only implies that $f^{-1}$ is differentiable on a particular point $x_0$, but not over $mathbb{R}$. Or I just let $y in mathbb{R}$ to complete my proof?
$endgroup$
– weilam06
Dec 20 '18 at 8:31












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