Cyclic Field Extension of Local Field
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Let $K$ be a local field (therefore complete, discrete non-archimedian valuation field) with perfect residual field $kappa_K:= mathcal{O}_K/pi_K$.
Assume that $L/K$ is a field extension of $K$ of degree $n= [L:K]$ and $L$ contains all $n$-th roots and is tamely ramified.
How to show that then $L/K$ is a cyclic extension (Therefore that $Gal(L/K)$ is a cyclic group)?
It looks (taking into account the condition that it contains the $n$-th roots) that possibly I could use the Kummer theory to get the claim but I don’t see how to apply it here. Especially I’m not really familar with local fields. Could anybody help?
Btw: I know that the main result of Kummer theory provides a bijective correspondence between abelian extensions of $K$ and subgroups $W$ of multiplicative group: $(K^*)^n subset W subset K^*$. Can group this correspondence be derived a correspondence to cyclic extensions?- as in my case
field-theory algebraic-number-theory local-field kummer-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $K$ be a local field (therefore complete, discrete non-archimedian valuation field) with perfect residual field $kappa_K:= mathcal{O}_K/pi_K$.
Assume that $L/K$ is a field extension of $K$ of degree $n= [L:K]$ and $L$ contains all $n$-th roots and is tamely ramified.
How to show that then $L/K$ is a cyclic extension (Therefore that $Gal(L/K)$ is a cyclic group)?
It looks (taking into account the condition that it contains the $n$-th roots) that possibly I could use the Kummer theory to get the claim but I don’t see how to apply it here. Especially I’m not really familar with local fields. Could anybody help?
Btw: I know that the main result of Kummer theory provides a bijective correspondence between abelian extensions of $K$ and subgroups $W$ of multiplicative group: $(K^*)^n subset W subset K^*$. Can group this correspondence be derived a correspondence to cyclic extensions?- as in my case
field-theory algebraic-number-theory local-field kummer-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $K$ be a local field (therefore complete, discrete non-archimedian valuation field) with perfect residual field $kappa_K:= mathcal{O}_K/pi_K$.
Assume that $L/K$ is a field extension of $K$ of degree $n= [L:K]$ and $L$ contains all $n$-th roots and is tamely ramified.
How to show that then $L/K$ is a cyclic extension (Therefore that $Gal(L/K)$ is a cyclic group)?
It looks (taking into account the condition that it contains the $n$-th roots) that possibly I could use the Kummer theory to get the claim but I don’t see how to apply it here. Especially I’m not really familar with local fields. Could anybody help?
Btw: I know that the main result of Kummer theory provides a bijective correspondence between abelian extensions of $K$ and subgroups $W$ of multiplicative group: $(K^*)^n subset W subset K^*$. Can group this correspondence be derived a correspondence to cyclic extensions?- as in my case
field-theory algebraic-number-theory local-field kummer-theory
$endgroup$
Let $K$ be a local field (therefore complete, discrete non-archimedian valuation field) with perfect residual field $kappa_K:= mathcal{O}_K/pi_K$.
Assume that $L/K$ is a field extension of $K$ of degree $n= [L:K]$ and $L$ contains all $n$-th roots and is tamely ramified.
How to show that then $L/K$ is a cyclic extension (Therefore that $Gal(L/K)$ is a cyclic group)?
It looks (taking into account the condition that it contains the $n$-th roots) that possibly I could use the Kummer theory to get the claim but I don’t see how to apply it here. Especially I’m not really familar with local fields. Could anybody help?
Btw: I know that the main result of Kummer theory provides a bijective correspondence between abelian extensions of $K$ and subgroups $W$ of multiplicative group: $(K^*)^n subset W subset K^*$. Can group this correspondence be derived a correspondence to cyclic extensions?- as in my case
field-theory algebraic-number-theory local-field kummer-theory
field-theory algebraic-number-theory local-field kummer-theory
asked Dec 16 '18 at 20:19
KarlPeterKarlPeter
5741315
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2 Answers
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I keep your notation $L/K$ of degree $n$, and write as usual $n=ef$, where $e$ (resp. $f$) is the ramification (resp. inertia) index. The maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ (= inertia subfield) of $L/K$ is classically known to be cyclic of degree $f$.
1) Let us first study $L/F$, which, by hypothesis, is tamely ramified (the residual characteristic $p$ of $K$ does not divide $e$) and contains the $n$-th (hence the $e$-th) roots of unity. Denote by $pi$ (resp. $Pi$) a uniformizer of $F$ (resp. $L$), and by $U_i , ige 0$, the subgroup of units $U_i=1+ (pi^i)$ of $F$. It is known that $U_0/U_1$ is canonically isomorphic to the residual multiplicative group ${kappa}^*$ of $F$, and for $i ge 1, U_i/ U_{i+1}$ is non canonically isomorphic to $(kappa,+)$, see e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1. By definition $Pi^e /pi =uin U_0$, and $u=u_1w$, with $u_1 in U_1$ and $w$ representing a class of $U_0/U_1$. But, because $p nmid e$, multiplication by $e$ in $U_1/U_2$ is an isomorphism, hence we can repeat the approximation process to get $u_1=u_2{w_1}^e$, with $u_2 in U_2$ and $w_1$ representing a class of $U_1/U_2$, etc. On taking the projective limit, we obtain (with a change of notations) $Pi^e=pi$. This shows that $L=F(sqrt [e]pi)$ is an Eisenstein extension, thus tamely totally ramified with ramification index $e$. Since $F$ contains a primitive $e$-th root of unity, Kummer theory tells us that $L/F$ is a cyclic Galois extension of degree $e$.
2) We can't say much more about $L/K$ since we don't even know if it is Galois. However, even in the Galois situation, I think that your proposition (the cyclicity of $L/K$) does'nt hold in general. For example, fix an uniformizer $pi$ of $K$ and take $L=E.F$, with $E=K(sqrt [e]pi)$. For ramification reasons, $E, F$ are linearly disjoint, hence $L/K$ is an abelian extension, with Galois group $G cong Z/eZ times Z/fZ$. If $e, f$ are coprime, $G$ is cyclic. But if for instance $e=f=$ a prime $q$, $G$ is not cyclic.
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Thank you for your answer. One question: Why is the maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ of L/K cyclic?
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– KarlPeter
Dec 19 '18 at 0:09
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This is a classical result : an unramified extension is cyclic, obtained by adding a primitive root of 1 of order not divisible by the residual characteristic. See e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1.
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– nguyen quang do
Dec 19 '18 at 7:33
add a comment |
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If $kappa_K$ is contained in $overline{mathbb{F}_p}$, or if $L/K$ is totally ramified (see comments below)
The valuation gives an absolute value $|x| = q^{-v(x)} $.
If $x in L, |x| < 1$ then $(1+x)^{1/n} = sum_{m=0}^infty {1/n choose k} x^k $ converges and is $in L$.
Proof : (In characteristic $p nmid n$ then ${1/n choose k} in mathbb{Z}_p$ then reduce it modulo $p$)
So $|{1/n choose k}| le 1$ and the series converges, and since $L$ is complete the limit is in $L$.
Since $L/K$ is totally ramified of degree $n$ then
$pi_L^n = u^{-1} pi_K$ where $|u| = 1$. So there is a root of unity $zeta equiv u bmod (pi_L)$ such that $u zeta^{-1} = 1+x, |x| < 1$, so that $varpi_L = zeta^{1/n} (1+x)^{1/n} pi_L in L$ satisfies $ varpi_L^n = pi_K$.
Whence $L = K(pi_K^{1/n})$ and $Gal(L/K) = langle sigma rangle$ with $sigma(pi_K^{1/n}) = zeta_n pi_K^{1/n}$.
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Hi. How do you deduce that $L:K$ is totally ramified from the given condition that it is tamely ramified?
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– KarlPeter
Dec 16 '18 at 21:23
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I’m using the definitions for totally/tamely ramification from math.uga.edu/~pete/8410Chapter4.pdf It says especially that if we consider a finite field extension $L/K$. Denote by $k := kappa_K$ (resp l:= kappa_L) is the residual fields of $K$ (resp L) then: $L/K$ totally ramified iff e(L/K) =[L:K] (or as you used $pi_K mathcal{O}_L = pi_L ^{e(L/K)} mathcal{O}_L$. This is equivalently to $l=k$ and $L/K$ is tamely ramified iff $e(L/K)$ is prime to the characteristic of $K$ $char(K)=p$.
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– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
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We know that $k$ is perfect. I don't see how do you conclude that $L/K$ totally ramified. What can we say about the resudual field $l$ of $L$. We need an argument that $l=k$...
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– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
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@KarlPeter Let $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ then it has non-cyclic Galois extensions $kappa_L/kappa_K$ of degree $n$ so $K = kappa_K((t)),L = kappa_L((t))$ is a non-cyclic unramified extension of degree $n$. That's why your statement meant that $L/K$ is totally ramified (and doesn't have wild ramification, since all the $zeta_{n^r}$ are then in $kappa_K$).
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– reuns
Dec 17 '18 at 18:35
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Two points aren't clear to me: Firstly, why we can assume wlog that the residual field $kappa_K$ is already the perfect closure $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ Naively - since by assumption it is perfect - it is just a subfield of $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{ninfty})$ in case of characteristic zero. Or did you implicitely used an argument that allows to reduce this to the case $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$?
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– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 22:54
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$begingroup$
I keep your notation $L/K$ of degree $n$, and write as usual $n=ef$, where $e$ (resp. $f$) is the ramification (resp. inertia) index. The maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ (= inertia subfield) of $L/K$ is classically known to be cyclic of degree $f$.
1) Let us first study $L/F$, which, by hypothesis, is tamely ramified (the residual characteristic $p$ of $K$ does not divide $e$) and contains the $n$-th (hence the $e$-th) roots of unity. Denote by $pi$ (resp. $Pi$) a uniformizer of $F$ (resp. $L$), and by $U_i , ige 0$, the subgroup of units $U_i=1+ (pi^i)$ of $F$. It is known that $U_0/U_1$ is canonically isomorphic to the residual multiplicative group ${kappa}^*$ of $F$, and for $i ge 1, U_i/ U_{i+1}$ is non canonically isomorphic to $(kappa,+)$, see e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1. By definition $Pi^e /pi =uin U_0$, and $u=u_1w$, with $u_1 in U_1$ and $w$ representing a class of $U_0/U_1$. But, because $p nmid e$, multiplication by $e$ in $U_1/U_2$ is an isomorphism, hence we can repeat the approximation process to get $u_1=u_2{w_1}^e$, with $u_2 in U_2$ and $w_1$ representing a class of $U_1/U_2$, etc. On taking the projective limit, we obtain (with a change of notations) $Pi^e=pi$. This shows that $L=F(sqrt [e]pi)$ is an Eisenstein extension, thus tamely totally ramified with ramification index $e$. Since $F$ contains a primitive $e$-th root of unity, Kummer theory tells us that $L/F$ is a cyclic Galois extension of degree $e$.
2) We can't say much more about $L/K$ since we don't even know if it is Galois. However, even in the Galois situation, I think that your proposition (the cyclicity of $L/K$) does'nt hold in general. For example, fix an uniformizer $pi$ of $K$ and take $L=E.F$, with $E=K(sqrt [e]pi)$. For ramification reasons, $E, F$ are linearly disjoint, hence $L/K$ is an abelian extension, with Galois group $G cong Z/eZ times Z/fZ$. If $e, f$ are coprime, $G$ is cyclic. But if for instance $e=f=$ a prime $q$, $G$ is not cyclic.
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$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. One question: Why is the maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ of L/K cyclic?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 19 '18 at 0:09
$begingroup$
This is a classical result : an unramified extension is cyclic, obtained by adding a primitive root of 1 of order not divisible by the residual characteristic. See e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1.
$endgroup$
– nguyen quang do
Dec 19 '18 at 7:33
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I keep your notation $L/K$ of degree $n$, and write as usual $n=ef$, where $e$ (resp. $f$) is the ramification (resp. inertia) index. The maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ (= inertia subfield) of $L/K$ is classically known to be cyclic of degree $f$.
1) Let us first study $L/F$, which, by hypothesis, is tamely ramified (the residual characteristic $p$ of $K$ does not divide $e$) and contains the $n$-th (hence the $e$-th) roots of unity. Denote by $pi$ (resp. $Pi$) a uniformizer of $F$ (resp. $L$), and by $U_i , ige 0$, the subgroup of units $U_i=1+ (pi^i)$ of $F$. It is known that $U_0/U_1$ is canonically isomorphic to the residual multiplicative group ${kappa}^*$ of $F$, and for $i ge 1, U_i/ U_{i+1}$ is non canonically isomorphic to $(kappa,+)$, see e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1. By definition $Pi^e /pi =uin U_0$, and $u=u_1w$, with $u_1 in U_1$ and $w$ representing a class of $U_0/U_1$. But, because $p nmid e$, multiplication by $e$ in $U_1/U_2$ is an isomorphism, hence we can repeat the approximation process to get $u_1=u_2{w_1}^e$, with $u_2 in U_2$ and $w_1$ representing a class of $U_1/U_2$, etc. On taking the projective limit, we obtain (with a change of notations) $Pi^e=pi$. This shows that $L=F(sqrt [e]pi)$ is an Eisenstein extension, thus tamely totally ramified with ramification index $e$. Since $F$ contains a primitive $e$-th root of unity, Kummer theory tells us that $L/F$ is a cyclic Galois extension of degree $e$.
2) We can't say much more about $L/K$ since we don't even know if it is Galois. However, even in the Galois situation, I think that your proposition (the cyclicity of $L/K$) does'nt hold in general. For example, fix an uniformizer $pi$ of $K$ and take $L=E.F$, with $E=K(sqrt [e]pi)$. For ramification reasons, $E, F$ are linearly disjoint, hence $L/K$ is an abelian extension, with Galois group $G cong Z/eZ times Z/fZ$. If $e, f$ are coprime, $G$ is cyclic. But if for instance $e=f=$ a prime $q$, $G$ is not cyclic.
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$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. One question: Why is the maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ of L/K cyclic?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 19 '18 at 0:09
$begingroup$
This is a classical result : an unramified extension is cyclic, obtained by adding a primitive root of 1 of order not divisible by the residual characteristic. See e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1.
$endgroup$
– nguyen quang do
Dec 19 '18 at 7:33
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I keep your notation $L/K$ of degree $n$, and write as usual $n=ef$, where $e$ (resp. $f$) is the ramification (resp. inertia) index. The maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ (= inertia subfield) of $L/K$ is classically known to be cyclic of degree $f$.
1) Let us first study $L/F$, which, by hypothesis, is tamely ramified (the residual characteristic $p$ of $K$ does not divide $e$) and contains the $n$-th (hence the $e$-th) roots of unity. Denote by $pi$ (resp. $Pi$) a uniformizer of $F$ (resp. $L$), and by $U_i , ige 0$, the subgroup of units $U_i=1+ (pi^i)$ of $F$. It is known that $U_0/U_1$ is canonically isomorphic to the residual multiplicative group ${kappa}^*$ of $F$, and for $i ge 1, U_i/ U_{i+1}$ is non canonically isomorphic to $(kappa,+)$, see e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1. By definition $Pi^e /pi =uin U_0$, and $u=u_1w$, with $u_1 in U_1$ and $w$ representing a class of $U_0/U_1$. But, because $p nmid e$, multiplication by $e$ in $U_1/U_2$ is an isomorphism, hence we can repeat the approximation process to get $u_1=u_2{w_1}^e$, with $u_2 in U_2$ and $w_1$ representing a class of $U_1/U_2$, etc. On taking the projective limit, we obtain (with a change of notations) $Pi^e=pi$. This shows that $L=F(sqrt [e]pi)$ is an Eisenstein extension, thus tamely totally ramified with ramification index $e$. Since $F$ contains a primitive $e$-th root of unity, Kummer theory tells us that $L/F$ is a cyclic Galois extension of degree $e$.
2) We can't say much more about $L/K$ since we don't even know if it is Galois. However, even in the Galois situation, I think that your proposition (the cyclicity of $L/K$) does'nt hold in general. For example, fix an uniformizer $pi$ of $K$ and take $L=E.F$, with $E=K(sqrt [e]pi)$. For ramification reasons, $E, F$ are linearly disjoint, hence $L/K$ is an abelian extension, with Galois group $G cong Z/eZ times Z/fZ$. If $e, f$ are coprime, $G$ is cyclic. But if for instance $e=f=$ a prime $q$, $G$ is not cyclic.
$endgroup$
I keep your notation $L/K$ of degree $n$, and write as usual $n=ef$, where $e$ (resp. $f$) is the ramification (resp. inertia) index. The maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ (= inertia subfield) of $L/K$ is classically known to be cyclic of degree $f$.
1) Let us first study $L/F$, which, by hypothesis, is tamely ramified (the residual characteristic $p$ of $K$ does not divide $e$) and contains the $n$-th (hence the $e$-th) roots of unity. Denote by $pi$ (resp. $Pi$) a uniformizer of $F$ (resp. $L$), and by $U_i , ige 0$, the subgroup of units $U_i=1+ (pi^i)$ of $F$. It is known that $U_0/U_1$ is canonically isomorphic to the residual multiplicative group ${kappa}^*$ of $F$, and for $i ge 1, U_i/ U_{i+1}$ is non canonically isomorphic to $(kappa,+)$, see e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1. By definition $Pi^e /pi =uin U_0$, and $u=u_1w$, with $u_1 in U_1$ and $w$ representing a class of $U_0/U_1$. But, because $p nmid e$, multiplication by $e$ in $U_1/U_2$ is an isomorphism, hence we can repeat the approximation process to get $u_1=u_2{w_1}^e$, with $u_2 in U_2$ and $w_1$ representing a class of $U_1/U_2$, etc. On taking the projective limit, we obtain (with a change of notations) $Pi^e=pi$. This shows that $L=F(sqrt [e]pi)$ is an Eisenstein extension, thus tamely totally ramified with ramification index $e$. Since $F$ contains a primitive $e$-th root of unity, Kummer theory tells us that $L/F$ is a cyclic Galois extension of degree $e$.
2) We can't say much more about $L/K$ since we don't even know if it is Galois. However, even in the Galois situation, I think that your proposition (the cyclicity of $L/K$) does'nt hold in general. For example, fix an uniformizer $pi$ of $K$ and take $L=E.F$, with $E=K(sqrt [e]pi)$. For ramification reasons, $E, F$ are linearly disjoint, hence $L/K$ is an abelian extension, with Galois group $G cong Z/eZ times Z/fZ$. If $e, f$ are coprime, $G$ is cyclic. But if for instance $e=f=$ a prime $q$, $G$ is not cyclic.
edited Dec 18 '18 at 14:47
answered Dec 18 '18 at 13:48
nguyen quang donguyen quang do
8,4891723
8,4891723
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Thank you for your answer. One question: Why is the maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ of L/K cyclic?
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– KarlPeter
Dec 19 '18 at 0:09
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This is a classical result : an unramified extension is cyclic, obtained by adding a primitive root of 1 of order not divisible by the residual characteristic. See e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1.
$endgroup$
– nguyen quang do
Dec 19 '18 at 7:33
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. One question: Why is the maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ of L/K cyclic?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 19 '18 at 0:09
$begingroup$
This is a classical result : an unramified extension is cyclic, obtained by adding a primitive root of 1 of order not divisible by the residual characteristic. See e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1.
$endgroup$
– nguyen quang do
Dec 19 '18 at 7:33
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. One question: Why is the maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ of L/K cyclic?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 19 '18 at 0:09
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. One question: Why is the maximal unramified subextension $F/K$ of L/K cyclic?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 19 '18 at 0:09
$begingroup$
This is a classical result : an unramified extension is cyclic, obtained by adding a primitive root of 1 of order not divisible by the residual characteristic. See e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1.
$endgroup$
– nguyen quang do
Dec 19 '18 at 7:33
$begingroup$
This is a classical result : an unramified extension is cyclic, obtained by adding a primitive root of 1 of order not divisible by the residual characteristic. See e.g. Cassels-Fröhlich, chap. 1.
$endgroup$
– nguyen quang do
Dec 19 '18 at 7:33
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $kappa_K$ is contained in $overline{mathbb{F}_p}$, or if $L/K$ is totally ramified (see comments below)
The valuation gives an absolute value $|x| = q^{-v(x)} $.
If $x in L, |x| < 1$ then $(1+x)^{1/n} = sum_{m=0}^infty {1/n choose k} x^k $ converges and is $in L$.
Proof : (In characteristic $p nmid n$ then ${1/n choose k} in mathbb{Z}_p$ then reduce it modulo $p$)
So $|{1/n choose k}| le 1$ and the series converges, and since $L$ is complete the limit is in $L$.
Since $L/K$ is totally ramified of degree $n$ then
$pi_L^n = u^{-1} pi_K$ where $|u| = 1$. So there is a root of unity $zeta equiv u bmod (pi_L)$ such that $u zeta^{-1} = 1+x, |x| < 1$, so that $varpi_L = zeta^{1/n} (1+x)^{1/n} pi_L in L$ satisfies $ varpi_L^n = pi_K$.
Whence $L = K(pi_K^{1/n})$ and $Gal(L/K) = langle sigma rangle$ with $sigma(pi_K^{1/n}) = zeta_n pi_K^{1/n}$.
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Hi. How do you deduce that $L:K$ is totally ramified from the given condition that it is tamely ramified?
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– KarlPeter
Dec 16 '18 at 21:23
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I’m using the definitions for totally/tamely ramification from math.uga.edu/~pete/8410Chapter4.pdf It says especially that if we consider a finite field extension $L/K$. Denote by $k := kappa_K$ (resp l:= kappa_L) is the residual fields of $K$ (resp L) then: $L/K$ totally ramified iff e(L/K) =[L:K] (or as you used $pi_K mathcal{O}_L = pi_L ^{e(L/K)} mathcal{O}_L$. This is equivalently to $l=k$ and $L/K$ is tamely ramified iff $e(L/K)$ is prime to the characteristic of $K$ $char(K)=p$.
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– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
We know that $k$ is perfect. I don't see how do you conclude that $L/K$ totally ramified. What can we say about the resudual field $l$ of $L$. We need an argument that $l=k$...
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– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
@KarlPeter Let $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ then it has non-cyclic Galois extensions $kappa_L/kappa_K$ of degree $n$ so $K = kappa_K((t)),L = kappa_L((t))$ is a non-cyclic unramified extension of degree $n$. That's why your statement meant that $L/K$ is totally ramified (and doesn't have wild ramification, since all the $zeta_{n^r}$ are then in $kappa_K$).
$endgroup$
– reuns
Dec 17 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
Two points aren't clear to me: Firstly, why we can assume wlog that the residual field $kappa_K$ is already the perfect closure $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ Naively - since by assumption it is perfect - it is just a subfield of $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{ninfty})$ in case of characteristic zero. Or did you implicitely used an argument that allows to reduce this to the case $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 22:54
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
If $kappa_K$ is contained in $overline{mathbb{F}_p}$, or if $L/K$ is totally ramified (see comments below)
The valuation gives an absolute value $|x| = q^{-v(x)} $.
If $x in L, |x| < 1$ then $(1+x)^{1/n} = sum_{m=0}^infty {1/n choose k} x^k $ converges and is $in L$.
Proof : (In characteristic $p nmid n$ then ${1/n choose k} in mathbb{Z}_p$ then reduce it modulo $p$)
So $|{1/n choose k}| le 1$ and the series converges, and since $L$ is complete the limit is in $L$.
Since $L/K$ is totally ramified of degree $n$ then
$pi_L^n = u^{-1} pi_K$ where $|u| = 1$. So there is a root of unity $zeta equiv u bmod (pi_L)$ such that $u zeta^{-1} = 1+x, |x| < 1$, so that $varpi_L = zeta^{1/n} (1+x)^{1/n} pi_L in L$ satisfies $ varpi_L^n = pi_K$.
Whence $L = K(pi_K^{1/n})$ and $Gal(L/K) = langle sigma rangle$ with $sigma(pi_K^{1/n}) = zeta_n pi_K^{1/n}$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi. How do you deduce that $L:K$ is totally ramified from the given condition that it is tamely ramified?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 16 '18 at 21:23
$begingroup$
I’m using the definitions for totally/tamely ramification from math.uga.edu/~pete/8410Chapter4.pdf It says especially that if we consider a finite field extension $L/K$. Denote by $k := kappa_K$ (resp l:= kappa_L) is the residual fields of $K$ (resp L) then: $L/K$ totally ramified iff e(L/K) =[L:K] (or as you used $pi_K mathcal{O}_L = pi_L ^{e(L/K)} mathcal{O}_L$. This is equivalently to $l=k$ and $L/K$ is tamely ramified iff $e(L/K)$ is prime to the characteristic of $K$ $char(K)=p$.
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
We know that $k$ is perfect. I don't see how do you conclude that $L/K$ totally ramified. What can we say about the resudual field $l$ of $L$. We need an argument that $l=k$...
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
@KarlPeter Let $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ then it has non-cyclic Galois extensions $kappa_L/kappa_K$ of degree $n$ so $K = kappa_K((t)),L = kappa_L((t))$ is a non-cyclic unramified extension of degree $n$. That's why your statement meant that $L/K$ is totally ramified (and doesn't have wild ramification, since all the $zeta_{n^r}$ are then in $kappa_K$).
$endgroup$
– reuns
Dec 17 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
Two points aren't clear to me: Firstly, why we can assume wlog that the residual field $kappa_K$ is already the perfect closure $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ Naively - since by assumption it is perfect - it is just a subfield of $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{ninfty})$ in case of characteristic zero. Or did you implicitely used an argument that allows to reduce this to the case $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 22:54
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
If $kappa_K$ is contained in $overline{mathbb{F}_p}$, or if $L/K$ is totally ramified (see comments below)
The valuation gives an absolute value $|x| = q^{-v(x)} $.
If $x in L, |x| < 1$ then $(1+x)^{1/n} = sum_{m=0}^infty {1/n choose k} x^k $ converges and is $in L$.
Proof : (In characteristic $p nmid n$ then ${1/n choose k} in mathbb{Z}_p$ then reduce it modulo $p$)
So $|{1/n choose k}| le 1$ and the series converges, and since $L$ is complete the limit is in $L$.
Since $L/K$ is totally ramified of degree $n$ then
$pi_L^n = u^{-1} pi_K$ where $|u| = 1$. So there is a root of unity $zeta equiv u bmod (pi_L)$ such that $u zeta^{-1} = 1+x, |x| < 1$, so that $varpi_L = zeta^{1/n} (1+x)^{1/n} pi_L in L$ satisfies $ varpi_L^n = pi_K$.
Whence $L = K(pi_K^{1/n})$ and $Gal(L/K) = langle sigma rangle$ with $sigma(pi_K^{1/n}) = zeta_n pi_K^{1/n}$.
$endgroup$
If $kappa_K$ is contained in $overline{mathbb{F}_p}$, or if $L/K$ is totally ramified (see comments below)
The valuation gives an absolute value $|x| = q^{-v(x)} $.
If $x in L, |x| < 1$ then $(1+x)^{1/n} = sum_{m=0}^infty {1/n choose k} x^k $ converges and is $in L$.
Proof : (In characteristic $p nmid n$ then ${1/n choose k} in mathbb{Z}_p$ then reduce it modulo $p$)
So $|{1/n choose k}| le 1$ and the series converges, and since $L$ is complete the limit is in $L$.
Since $L/K$ is totally ramified of degree $n$ then
$pi_L^n = u^{-1} pi_K$ where $|u| = 1$. So there is a root of unity $zeta equiv u bmod (pi_L)$ such that $u zeta^{-1} = 1+x, |x| < 1$, so that $varpi_L = zeta^{1/n} (1+x)^{1/n} pi_L in L$ satisfies $ varpi_L^n = pi_K$.
Whence $L = K(pi_K^{1/n})$ and $Gal(L/K) = langle sigma rangle$ with $sigma(pi_K^{1/n}) = zeta_n pi_K^{1/n}$.
edited Dec 17 '18 at 18:35
answered Dec 16 '18 at 21:06
reunsreuns
19.8k21147
19.8k21147
$begingroup$
Hi. How do you deduce that $L:K$ is totally ramified from the given condition that it is tamely ramified?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 16 '18 at 21:23
$begingroup$
I’m using the definitions for totally/tamely ramification from math.uga.edu/~pete/8410Chapter4.pdf It says especially that if we consider a finite field extension $L/K$. Denote by $k := kappa_K$ (resp l:= kappa_L) is the residual fields of $K$ (resp L) then: $L/K$ totally ramified iff e(L/K) =[L:K] (or as you used $pi_K mathcal{O}_L = pi_L ^{e(L/K)} mathcal{O}_L$. This is equivalently to $l=k$ and $L/K$ is tamely ramified iff $e(L/K)$ is prime to the characteristic of $K$ $char(K)=p$.
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
We know that $k$ is perfect. I don't see how do you conclude that $L/K$ totally ramified. What can we say about the resudual field $l$ of $L$. We need an argument that $l=k$...
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
@KarlPeter Let $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ then it has non-cyclic Galois extensions $kappa_L/kappa_K$ of degree $n$ so $K = kappa_K((t)),L = kappa_L((t))$ is a non-cyclic unramified extension of degree $n$. That's why your statement meant that $L/K$ is totally ramified (and doesn't have wild ramification, since all the $zeta_{n^r}$ are then in $kappa_K$).
$endgroup$
– reuns
Dec 17 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
Two points aren't clear to me: Firstly, why we can assume wlog that the residual field $kappa_K$ is already the perfect closure $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ Naively - since by assumption it is perfect - it is just a subfield of $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{ninfty})$ in case of characteristic zero. Or did you implicitely used an argument that allows to reduce this to the case $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 22:54
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
Hi. How do you deduce that $L:K$ is totally ramified from the given condition that it is tamely ramified?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 16 '18 at 21:23
$begingroup$
I’m using the definitions for totally/tamely ramification from math.uga.edu/~pete/8410Chapter4.pdf It says especially that if we consider a finite field extension $L/K$. Denote by $k := kappa_K$ (resp l:= kappa_L) is the residual fields of $K$ (resp L) then: $L/K$ totally ramified iff e(L/K) =[L:K] (or as you used $pi_K mathcal{O}_L = pi_L ^{e(L/K)} mathcal{O}_L$. This is equivalently to $l=k$ and $L/K$ is tamely ramified iff $e(L/K)$ is prime to the characteristic of $K$ $char(K)=p$.
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
We know that $k$ is perfect. I don't see how do you conclude that $L/K$ totally ramified. What can we say about the resudual field $l$ of $L$. We need an argument that $l=k$...
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
@KarlPeter Let $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ then it has non-cyclic Galois extensions $kappa_L/kappa_K$ of degree $n$ so $K = kappa_K((t)),L = kappa_L((t))$ is a non-cyclic unramified extension of degree $n$. That's why your statement meant that $L/K$ is totally ramified (and doesn't have wild ramification, since all the $zeta_{n^r}$ are then in $kappa_K$).
$endgroup$
– reuns
Dec 17 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
Two points aren't clear to me: Firstly, why we can assume wlog that the residual field $kappa_K$ is already the perfect closure $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ Naively - since by assumption it is perfect - it is just a subfield of $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{ninfty})$ in case of characteristic zero. Or did you implicitely used an argument that allows to reduce this to the case $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 22:54
$begingroup$
Hi. How do you deduce that $L:K$ is totally ramified from the given condition that it is tamely ramified?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 16 '18 at 21:23
$begingroup$
Hi. How do you deduce that $L:K$ is totally ramified from the given condition that it is tamely ramified?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 16 '18 at 21:23
$begingroup$
I’m using the definitions for totally/tamely ramification from math.uga.edu/~pete/8410Chapter4.pdf It says especially that if we consider a finite field extension $L/K$. Denote by $k := kappa_K$ (resp l:= kappa_L) is the residual fields of $K$ (resp L) then: $L/K$ totally ramified iff e(L/K) =[L:K] (or as you used $pi_K mathcal{O}_L = pi_L ^{e(L/K)} mathcal{O}_L$. This is equivalently to $l=k$ and $L/K$ is tamely ramified iff $e(L/K)$ is prime to the characteristic of $K$ $char(K)=p$.
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
I’m using the definitions for totally/tamely ramification from math.uga.edu/~pete/8410Chapter4.pdf It says especially that if we consider a finite field extension $L/K$. Denote by $k := kappa_K$ (resp l:= kappa_L) is the residual fields of $K$ (resp L) then: $L/K$ totally ramified iff e(L/K) =[L:K] (or as you used $pi_K mathcal{O}_L = pi_L ^{e(L/K)} mathcal{O}_L$. This is equivalently to $l=k$ and $L/K$ is tamely ramified iff $e(L/K)$ is prime to the characteristic of $K$ $char(K)=p$.
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
We know that $k$ is perfect. I don't see how do you conclude that $L/K$ totally ramified. What can we say about the resudual field $l$ of $L$. We need an argument that $l=k$...
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
We know that $k$ is perfect. I don't see how do you conclude that $L/K$ totally ramified. What can we say about the resudual field $l$ of $L$. We need an argument that $l=k$...
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 1:53
$begingroup$
@KarlPeter Let $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ then it has non-cyclic Galois extensions $kappa_L/kappa_K$ of degree $n$ so $K = kappa_K((t)),L = kappa_L((t))$ is a non-cyclic unramified extension of degree $n$. That's why your statement meant that $L/K$ is totally ramified (and doesn't have wild ramification, since all the $zeta_{n^r}$ are then in $kappa_K$).
$endgroup$
– reuns
Dec 17 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
@KarlPeter Let $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ then it has non-cyclic Galois extensions $kappa_L/kappa_K$ of degree $n$ so $K = kappa_K((t)),L = kappa_L((t))$ is a non-cyclic unramified extension of degree $n$. That's why your statement meant that $L/K$ is totally ramified (and doesn't have wild ramification, since all the $zeta_{n^r}$ are then in $kappa_K$).
$endgroup$
– reuns
Dec 17 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
Two points aren't clear to me: Firstly, why we can assume wlog that the residual field $kappa_K$ is already the perfect closure $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ Naively - since by assumption it is perfect - it is just a subfield of $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{ninfty})$ in case of characteristic zero. Or did you implicitely used an argument that allows to reduce this to the case $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 22:54
$begingroup$
Two points aren't clear to me: Firstly, why we can assume wlog that the residual field $kappa_K$ is already the perfect closure $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$ Naively - since by assumption it is perfect - it is just a subfield of $mathbb{Q}(zeta_{ninfty})$ in case of characteristic zero. Or did you implicitely used an argument that allows to reduce this to the case $kappa_K = mathbb{Q}(zeta_{n^infty})$?
$endgroup$
– KarlPeter
Dec 17 '18 at 22:54
|
show 3 more comments
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