How to show that $f(x_1,x_3)=f(x_1,x_2)f(x_2,x_3)implies f(x,y)=g(x)/g(y)$ [closed]












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I wanted to know if there was a nice way of showing that $f(x_1,x_3)=f(x_1,x_2)f(x_2,x_3)forall x_1,x_2,x_3implies f(x,y)=g(x)/g(y)$ for some function $g$.










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closed as off-topic by Saad, Paul Frost, Karn Watcharasupat, amWhy, José Carlos Santos Dec 19 '18 at 17:37


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Paul Frost, Karn Watcharasupat, amWhy, José Carlos Santos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.





















    -1












    $begingroup$


    I wanted to know if there was a nice way of showing that $f(x_1,x_3)=f(x_1,x_2)f(x_2,x_3)forall x_1,x_2,x_3implies f(x,y)=g(x)/g(y)$ for some function $g$.










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    closed as off-topic by Saad, Paul Frost, Karn Watcharasupat, amWhy, José Carlos Santos Dec 19 '18 at 17:37


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Paul Frost, Karn Watcharasupat, amWhy, José Carlos Santos

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.



















      -1












      -1








      -1





      $begingroup$


      I wanted to know if there was a nice way of showing that $f(x_1,x_3)=f(x_1,x_2)f(x_2,x_3)forall x_1,x_2,x_3implies f(x,y)=g(x)/g(y)$ for some function $g$.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I wanted to know if there was a nice way of showing that $f(x_1,x_3)=f(x_1,x_2)f(x_2,x_3)forall x_1,x_2,x_3implies f(x,y)=g(x)/g(y)$ for some function $g$.







      functions






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      asked Dec 19 '18 at 8:23









      Aakash LakshmananAakash Lakshmanan

      628




      628




      closed as off-topic by Saad, Paul Frost, Karn Watcharasupat, amWhy, José Carlos Santos Dec 19 '18 at 17:37


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Paul Frost, Karn Watcharasupat, amWhy, José Carlos Santos

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







      closed as off-topic by Saad, Paul Frost, Karn Watcharasupat, amWhy, José Carlos Santos Dec 19 '18 at 17:37


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Paul Frost, Karn Watcharasupat, amWhy, José Carlos Santos

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
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          Write the equation with $x_3$ changed to $1$ and divide the given equation by the new one. You get $frac {f(x_1,x_3)} {f(x_1,1)}=frac {f(x_2,x_3)} {f(x_2,1)}$. What this equation tells you is that the function $frac {f(x,x_3)} {f(x,1)}$ has the same value at any two points $x=x_1$ and $x=x_2$. Hence it is independent of $x$. Call it $h(x_3)$. We get $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$. Can you complete the argument now? [You will need the fact $f(x,x)=f(x,x)^{2}$ so $f(x,x) =1$ (assuming $f(x,x) neq 0$. Note the result does not make sense for $f equiv 0$ so we have to make some assumptions about zeros of $f$)]. More details: you get $1=h(x)f(x,1)$ by putting $y=x$. I claim that the conclusion holds with $g =frac 1 h$. We have to show $f(x,y)=frac {g(x)} {g(y}$ which is same as $f(x,y)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. By $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$ this becomes $h(y)f(x,1)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. This is true because $h(x)f(x,1)=1$.






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          • $begingroup$
            Sorry but do you mind pushing it all the way?
            $endgroup$
            – Aakash Lakshmanan
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:51










          • $begingroup$
            @AakashLakshmanan I have given a detailed proof now.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:56


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          Write the equation with $x_3$ changed to $1$ and divide the given equation by the new one. You get $frac {f(x_1,x_3)} {f(x_1,1)}=frac {f(x_2,x_3)} {f(x_2,1)}$. What this equation tells you is that the function $frac {f(x,x_3)} {f(x,1)}$ has the same value at any two points $x=x_1$ and $x=x_2$. Hence it is independent of $x$. Call it $h(x_3)$. We get $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$. Can you complete the argument now? [You will need the fact $f(x,x)=f(x,x)^{2}$ so $f(x,x) =1$ (assuming $f(x,x) neq 0$. Note the result does not make sense for $f equiv 0$ so we have to make some assumptions about zeros of $f$)]. More details: you get $1=h(x)f(x,1)$ by putting $y=x$. I claim that the conclusion holds with $g =frac 1 h$. We have to show $f(x,y)=frac {g(x)} {g(y}$ which is same as $f(x,y)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. By $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$ this becomes $h(y)f(x,1)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. This is true because $h(x)f(x,1)=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Sorry but do you mind pushing it all the way?
            $endgroup$
            – Aakash Lakshmanan
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:51










          • $begingroup$
            @AakashLakshmanan I have given a detailed proof now.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:56
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Write the equation with $x_3$ changed to $1$ and divide the given equation by the new one. You get $frac {f(x_1,x_3)} {f(x_1,1)}=frac {f(x_2,x_3)} {f(x_2,1)}$. What this equation tells you is that the function $frac {f(x,x_3)} {f(x,1)}$ has the same value at any two points $x=x_1$ and $x=x_2$. Hence it is independent of $x$. Call it $h(x_3)$. We get $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$. Can you complete the argument now? [You will need the fact $f(x,x)=f(x,x)^{2}$ so $f(x,x) =1$ (assuming $f(x,x) neq 0$. Note the result does not make sense for $f equiv 0$ so we have to make some assumptions about zeros of $f$)]. More details: you get $1=h(x)f(x,1)$ by putting $y=x$. I claim that the conclusion holds with $g =frac 1 h$. We have to show $f(x,y)=frac {g(x)} {g(y}$ which is same as $f(x,y)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. By $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$ this becomes $h(y)f(x,1)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. This is true because $h(x)f(x,1)=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Sorry but do you mind pushing it all the way?
            $endgroup$
            – Aakash Lakshmanan
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:51










          • $begingroup$
            @AakashLakshmanan I have given a detailed proof now.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:56














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Write the equation with $x_3$ changed to $1$ and divide the given equation by the new one. You get $frac {f(x_1,x_3)} {f(x_1,1)}=frac {f(x_2,x_3)} {f(x_2,1)}$. What this equation tells you is that the function $frac {f(x,x_3)} {f(x,1)}$ has the same value at any two points $x=x_1$ and $x=x_2$. Hence it is independent of $x$. Call it $h(x_3)$. We get $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$. Can you complete the argument now? [You will need the fact $f(x,x)=f(x,x)^{2}$ so $f(x,x) =1$ (assuming $f(x,x) neq 0$. Note the result does not make sense for $f equiv 0$ so we have to make some assumptions about zeros of $f$)]. More details: you get $1=h(x)f(x,1)$ by putting $y=x$. I claim that the conclusion holds with $g =frac 1 h$. We have to show $f(x,y)=frac {g(x)} {g(y}$ which is same as $f(x,y)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. By $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$ this becomes $h(y)f(x,1)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. This is true because $h(x)f(x,1)=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Write the equation with $x_3$ changed to $1$ and divide the given equation by the new one. You get $frac {f(x_1,x_3)} {f(x_1,1)}=frac {f(x_2,x_3)} {f(x_2,1)}$. What this equation tells you is that the function $frac {f(x,x_3)} {f(x,1)}$ has the same value at any two points $x=x_1$ and $x=x_2$. Hence it is independent of $x$. Call it $h(x_3)$. We get $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$. Can you complete the argument now? [You will need the fact $f(x,x)=f(x,x)^{2}$ so $f(x,x) =1$ (assuming $f(x,x) neq 0$. Note the result does not make sense for $f equiv 0$ so we have to make some assumptions about zeros of $f$)]. More details: you get $1=h(x)f(x,1)$ by putting $y=x$. I claim that the conclusion holds with $g =frac 1 h$. We have to show $f(x,y)=frac {g(x)} {g(y}$ which is same as $f(x,y)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. By $f(x,y)=h(y)f(x,1)$ this becomes $h(y)f(x,1)=frac {h(y)} {h(x)}$. This is true because $h(x)f(x,1)=1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 19 '18 at 8:56

























          answered Dec 19 '18 at 8:39









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          56k42158




          56k42158












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry but do you mind pushing it all the way?
            $endgroup$
            – Aakash Lakshmanan
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:51










          • $begingroup$
            @AakashLakshmanan I have given a detailed proof now.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:56


















          • $begingroup$
            Sorry but do you mind pushing it all the way?
            $endgroup$
            – Aakash Lakshmanan
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:51










          • $begingroup$
            @AakashLakshmanan I have given a detailed proof now.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 19 '18 at 8:56
















          $begingroup$
          Sorry but do you mind pushing it all the way?
          $endgroup$
          – Aakash Lakshmanan
          Dec 19 '18 at 8:51




          $begingroup$
          Sorry but do you mind pushing it all the way?
          $endgroup$
          – Aakash Lakshmanan
          Dec 19 '18 at 8:51












          $begingroup$
          @AakashLakshmanan I have given a detailed proof now.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Dec 19 '18 at 8:56




          $begingroup$
          @AakashLakshmanan I have given a detailed proof now.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Dec 19 '18 at 8:56



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