Orthogonality of integer shifts and sum of fourier transforms












1














A function $psi in L_2(mathbb{R})$ is orthogonal to all integer shifts of a function $varphi in L_2(mathbb{R})$ if and if only
$$sum_{kin mathbb{z}} hat{varphi}(xi+k)overline{hat{psi}(xi+k)}equiv0$$





My approach:
$int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)varphi(t+k)dt=0$ $forall k in mathbb{Z}$ given. Now



begin{align}
&sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dt overline{int_{mathbb{R}}varphi(s)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)s )}ds\
implies &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dt int_{mathbb{R}}varphi(s)exp(2pi i (xi+k)s )ds\
implies &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)varphi(s)dsdt int_{mathbb{R}}exp(2pi i (xi+k)s )exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dtds\
end{align}

The last step I am not so sure, I think this can be done if s and t are independent. I am open to further suggestions or corrections and ideas regarding how to proceed.





I got a hint from the prof that we need to use:



$$varphi(xi)=sum_{kin mathbb{Z}}|hat{psi}(xi+k)|^2$$



${psi(t-k)}_{kin mathbb{Z}}$ is a orthonormal system if and only if$varphiequiv1$










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    1














    A function $psi in L_2(mathbb{R})$ is orthogonal to all integer shifts of a function $varphi in L_2(mathbb{R})$ if and if only
    $$sum_{kin mathbb{z}} hat{varphi}(xi+k)overline{hat{psi}(xi+k)}equiv0$$





    My approach:
    $int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)varphi(t+k)dt=0$ $forall k in mathbb{Z}$ given. Now



    begin{align}
    &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dt overline{int_{mathbb{R}}varphi(s)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)s )}ds\
    implies &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dt int_{mathbb{R}}varphi(s)exp(2pi i (xi+k)s )ds\
    implies &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)varphi(s)dsdt int_{mathbb{R}}exp(2pi i (xi+k)s )exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dtds\
    end{align}

    The last step I am not so sure, I think this can be done if s and t are independent. I am open to further suggestions or corrections and ideas regarding how to proceed.





    I got a hint from the prof that we need to use:



    $$varphi(xi)=sum_{kin mathbb{Z}}|hat{psi}(xi+k)|^2$$



    ${psi(t-k)}_{kin mathbb{Z}}$ is a orthonormal system if and only if$varphiequiv1$










    share|cite|improve this question



























      1












      1








      1







      A function $psi in L_2(mathbb{R})$ is orthogonal to all integer shifts of a function $varphi in L_2(mathbb{R})$ if and if only
      $$sum_{kin mathbb{z}} hat{varphi}(xi+k)overline{hat{psi}(xi+k)}equiv0$$





      My approach:
      $int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)varphi(t+k)dt=0$ $forall k in mathbb{Z}$ given. Now



      begin{align}
      &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dt overline{int_{mathbb{R}}varphi(s)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)s )}ds\
      implies &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dt int_{mathbb{R}}varphi(s)exp(2pi i (xi+k)s )ds\
      implies &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)varphi(s)dsdt int_{mathbb{R}}exp(2pi i (xi+k)s )exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dtds\
      end{align}

      The last step I am not so sure, I think this can be done if s and t are independent. I am open to further suggestions or corrections and ideas regarding how to proceed.





      I got a hint from the prof that we need to use:



      $$varphi(xi)=sum_{kin mathbb{Z}}|hat{psi}(xi+k)|^2$$



      ${psi(t-k)}_{kin mathbb{Z}}$ is a orthonormal system if and only if$varphiequiv1$










      share|cite|improve this question















      A function $psi in L_2(mathbb{R})$ is orthogonal to all integer shifts of a function $varphi in L_2(mathbb{R})$ if and if only
      $$sum_{kin mathbb{z}} hat{varphi}(xi+k)overline{hat{psi}(xi+k)}equiv0$$





      My approach:
      $int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)varphi(t+k)dt=0$ $forall k in mathbb{Z}$ given. Now



      begin{align}
      &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dt overline{int_{mathbb{R}}varphi(s)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)s )}ds\
      implies &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dt int_{mathbb{R}}varphi(s)exp(2pi i (xi+k)s )ds\
      implies &sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}int_{mathbb{R}}psi(t)varphi(s)dsdt int_{mathbb{R}}exp(2pi i (xi+k)s )exp(-2pi i (xi+k)t)dtds\
      end{align}

      The last step I am not so sure, I think this can be done if s and t are independent. I am open to further suggestions or corrections and ideas regarding how to proceed.





      I got a hint from the prof that we need to use:



      $$varphi(xi)=sum_{kin mathbb{Z}}|hat{psi}(xi+k)|^2$$



      ${psi(t-k)}_{kin mathbb{Z}}$ is a orthonormal system if and only if$varphiequiv1$







      functional-analysis lp-spaces fourier-transform orthogonality






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      edited Dec 11 at 18:35

























      asked Dec 9 at 18:46









      mm-crj

      382212




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