The Order of Orthogonality [closed]












-1












$begingroup$


I would like to show that $Bsubset A$ implies $A^{bot}subset B^{bot}$.



Note the meaning behind this: The bigger a subset, the smaller its orthogonal should be.

Let $x$ be in the complement of A. Then $langle x,yrangle =0$ for all $yin A$. But since $Bsubset A$, $langle x,yrangle=0$ for all $yin B$. Is it true?










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closed as off-topic by José Carlos Santos, anomaly, Morgan Rodgers, Namaste, mrtaurho Jan 13 at 21:37


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – José Carlos Santos, anomaly, Morgan Rodgers, Namaste, mrtaurho

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What have you tried so far?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 13 at 18:27










  • $begingroup$
    Note that meaning behind this, the bigger a subset, the smaller its ortogonal should be. Let x be in the complement of A. Then, <x,y>=0 for all y in A. But since, B is least then A, <x,y>=0 for all y in B. Is it true ?
    $endgroup$
    – mathsstudent
    Jan 13 at 18:33






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Be careful about what you mean by "B is less than A": being "smaller" is not sufficient. Literally just write out the definitions and you'll have three quarters of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 13 at 18:38
















-1












$begingroup$


I would like to show that $Bsubset A$ implies $A^{bot}subset B^{bot}$.



Note the meaning behind this: The bigger a subset, the smaller its orthogonal should be.

Let $x$ be in the complement of A. Then $langle x,yrangle =0$ for all $yin A$. But since $Bsubset A$, $langle x,yrangle=0$ for all $yin B$. Is it true?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by José Carlos Santos, anomaly, Morgan Rodgers, Namaste, mrtaurho Jan 13 at 21:37


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – José Carlos Santos, anomaly, Morgan Rodgers, Namaste, mrtaurho

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What have you tried so far?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 13 at 18:27










  • $begingroup$
    Note that meaning behind this, the bigger a subset, the smaller its ortogonal should be. Let x be in the complement of A. Then, <x,y>=0 for all y in A. But since, B is least then A, <x,y>=0 for all y in B. Is it true ?
    $endgroup$
    – mathsstudent
    Jan 13 at 18:33






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Be careful about what you mean by "B is less than A": being "smaller" is not sufficient. Literally just write out the definitions and you'll have three quarters of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 13 at 18:38














-1












-1








-1


1



$begingroup$


I would like to show that $Bsubset A$ implies $A^{bot}subset B^{bot}$.



Note the meaning behind this: The bigger a subset, the smaller its orthogonal should be.

Let $x$ be in the complement of A. Then $langle x,yrangle =0$ for all $yin A$. But since $Bsubset A$, $langle x,yrangle=0$ for all $yin B$. Is it true?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I would like to show that $Bsubset A$ implies $A^{bot}subset B^{bot}$.



Note the meaning behind this: The bigger a subset, the smaller its orthogonal should be.

Let $x$ be in the complement of A. Then $langle x,yrangle =0$ for all $yin A$. But since $Bsubset A$, $langle x,yrangle=0$ for all $yin B$. Is it true?







functional-analysis inner-product-space orthogonality






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 13 at 19:06









Hanno

2,509629




2,509629










asked Jan 13 at 18:25









mathsstudentmathsstudent

536




536




closed as off-topic by José Carlos Santos, anomaly, Morgan Rodgers, Namaste, mrtaurho Jan 13 at 21:37


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – José Carlos Santos, anomaly, Morgan Rodgers, Namaste, mrtaurho

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by José Carlos Santos, anomaly, Morgan Rodgers, Namaste, mrtaurho Jan 13 at 21:37


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – José Carlos Santos, anomaly, Morgan Rodgers, Namaste, mrtaurho

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What have you tried so far?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 13 at 18:27










  • $begingroup$
    Note that meaning behind this, the bigger a subset, the smaller its ortogonal should be. Let x be in the complement of A. Then, <x,y>=0 for all y in A. But since, B is least then A, <x,y>=0 for all y in B. Is it true ?
    $endgroup$
    – mathsstudent
    Jan 13 at 18:33






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Be careful about what you mean by "B is less than A": being "smaller" is not sufficient. Literally just write out the definitions and you'll have three quarters of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 13 at 18:38














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What have you tried so far?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 13 at 18:27










  • $begingroup$
    Note that meaning behind this, the bigger a subset, the smaller its ortogonal should be. Let x be in the complement of A. Then, <x,y>=0 for all y in A. But since, B is least then A, <x,y>=0 for all y in B. Is it true ?
    $endgroup$
    – mathsstudent
    Jan 13 at 18:33






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Be careful about what you mean by "B is less than A": being "smaller" is not sufficient. Literally just write out the definitions and you'll have three quarters of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 13 at 18:38








1




1




$begingroup$
What have you tried so far?
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 13 at 18:27




$begingroup$
What have you tried so far?
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 13 at 18:27












$begingroup$
Note that meaning behind this, the bigger a subset, the smaller its ortogonal should be. Let x be in the complement of A. Then, <x,y>=0 for all y in A. But since, B is least then A, <x,y>=0 for all y in B. Is it true ?
$endgroup$
– mathsstudent
Jan 13 at 18:33




$begingroup$
Note that meaning behind this, the bigger a subset, the smaller its ortogonal should be. Let x be in the complement of A. Then, <x,y>=0 for all y in A. But since, B is least then A, <x,y>=0 for all y in B. Is it true ?
$endgroup$
– mathsstudent
Jan 13 at 18:33




2




2




$begingroup$
Be careful about what you mean by "B is less than A": being "smaller" is not sufficient. Literally just write out the definitions and you'll have three quarters of the proof.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 13 at 18:38




$begingroup$
Be careful about what you mean by "B is less than A": being "smaller" is not sufficient. Literally just write out the definitions and you'll have three quarters of the proof.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 13 at 18:38










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

$$xin A^botiff xnotin Aoverbrace{Longrightarrow}^{Bsubset A} xnotin Biff xin B^bot$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks your help.
    $endgroup$
    – mathsstudent
    Jan 13 at 19:04












  • $begingroup$
    Wish you luck!.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Jan 13 at 19:05










  • $begingroup$
    Why do you say that $xnotin ARightarrow xin A^{perp}$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    Jan 13 at 20:20










  • $begingroup$
    Since the definition of $A^bot$ we are able to say so$$A^bot={xin U| xnot A}$$where $U$ is the Universal Set.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Jan 13 at 20:22



















0












$begingroup$

Yes, your argument is correct and straightforward.



Although true on the level of set inclusions, one should be aware
that the implication $:A^perpsubset B^perp:$ merely depends on the vector subspace $,operatorname{span}(B),$ being a subspace of $,operatorname{span}(A),$ (as implied by $Bsubset A$), and not on the "bigness" of $A$ and $B$ in the sense of sets.



A note regarding terminology: $V^perp$ is usually called "orthogonal complement" only if $V$ is a subspace, else $Voplus V^perp$ won't yield the entire ambient vector space.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    $$xin A^botiff xnotin Aoverbrace{Longrightarrow}^{Bsubset A} xnotin Biff xin B^bot$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks your help.
      $endgroup$
      – mathsstudent
      Jan 13 at 19:04












    • $begingroup$
      Wish you luck!.
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Jan 13 at 19:05










    • $begingroup$
      Why do you say that $xnotin ARightarrow xin A^{perp}$?
      $endgroup$
      – Lorenzo Quarisa
      Jan 13 at 20:20










    • $begingroup$
      Since the definition of $A^bot$ we are able to say so$$A^bot={xin U| xnot A}$$where $U$ is the Universal Set.
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Jan 13 at 20:22
















    1












    $begingroup$

    $$xin A^botiff xnotin Aoverbrace{Longrightarrow}^{Bsubset A} xnotin Biff xin B^bot$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks your help.
      $endgroup$
      – mathsstudent
      Jan 13 at 19:04












    • $begingroup$
      Wish you luck!.
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Jan 13 at 19:05










    • $begingroup$
      Why do you say that $xnotin ARightarrow xin A^{perp}$?
      $endgroup$
      – Lorenzo Quarisa
      Jan 13 at 20:20










    • $begingroup$
      Since the definition of $A^bot$ we are able to say so$$A^bot={xin U| xnot A}$$where $U$ is the Universal Set.
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Jan 13 at 20:22














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    $$xin A^botiff xnotin Aoverbrace{Longrightarrow}^{Bsubset A} xnotin Biff xin B^bot$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    $$xin A^botiff xnotin Aoverbrace{Longrightarrow}^{Bsubset A} xnotin Biff xin B^bot$$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 13 at 21:05

























    answered Jan 13 at 18:48









    Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

    18.1k31040




    18.1k31040












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks your help.
      $endgroup$
      – mathsstudent
      Jan 13 at 19:04












    • $begingroup$
      Wish you luck!.
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Jan 13 at 19:05










    • $begingroup$
      Why do you say that $xnotin ARightarrow xin A^{perp}$?
      $endgroup$
      – Lorenzo Quarisa
      Jan 13 at 20:20










    • $begingroup$
      Since the definition of $A^bot$ we are able to say so$$A^bot={xin U| xnot A}$$where $U$ is the Universal Set.
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Jan 13 at 20:22


















    • $begingroup$
      Thanks your help.
      $endgroup$
      – mathsstudent
      Jan 13 at 19:04












    • $begingroup$
      Wish you luck!.
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Jan 13 at 19:05










    • $begingroup$
      Why do you say that $xnotin ARightarrow xin A^{perp}$?
      $endgroup$
      – Lorenzo Quarisa
      Jan 13 at 20:20










    • $begingroup$
      Since the definition of $A^bot$ we are able to say so$$A^bot={xin U| xnot A}$$where $U$ is the Universal Set.
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Jan 13 at 20:22
















    $begingroup$
    Thanks your help.
    $endgroup$
    – mathsstudent
    Jan 13 at 19:04






    $begingroup$
    Thanks your help.
    $endgroup$
    – mathsstudent
    Jan 13 at 19:04














    $begingroup$
    Wish you luck!.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Jan 13 at 19:05




    $begingroup$
    Wish you luck!.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Jan 13 at 19:05












    $begingroup$
    Why do you say that $xnotin ARightarrow xin A^{perp}$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    Jan 13 at 20:20




    $begingroup$
    Why do you say that $xnotin ARightarrow xin A^{perp}$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lorenzo Quarisa
    Jan 13 at 20:20












    $begingroup$
    Since the definition of $A^bot$ we are able to say so$$A^bot={xin U| xnot A}$$where $U$ is the Universal Set.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Jan 13 at 20:22




    $begingroup$
    Since the definition of $A^bot$ we are able to say so$$A^bot={xin U| xnot A}$$where $U$ is the Universal Set.
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Jan 13 at 20:22











    0












    $begingroup$

    Yes, your argument is correct and straightforward.



    Although true on the level of set inclusions, one should be aware
    that the implication $:A^perpsubset B^perp:$ merely depends on the vector subspace $,operatorname{span}(B),$ being a subspace of $,operatorname{span}(A),$ (as implied by $Bsubset A$), and not on the "bigness" of $A$ and $B$ in the sense of sets.



    A note regarding terminology: $V^perp$ is usually called "orthogonal complement" only if $V$ is a subspace, else $Voplus V^perp$ won't yield the entire ambient vector space.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Yes, your argument is correct and straightforward.



      Although true on the level of set inclusions, one should be aware
      that the implication $:A^perpsubset B^perp:$ merely depends on the vector subspace $,operatorname{span}(B),$ being a subspace of $,operatorname{span}(A),$ (as implied by $Bsubset A$), and not on the "bigness" of $A$ and $B$ in the sense of sets.



      A note regarding terminology: $V^perp$ is usually called "orthogonal complement" only if $V$ is a subspace, else $Voplus V^perp$ won't yield the entire ambient vector space.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Yes, your argument is correct and straightforward.



        Although true on the level of set inclusions, one should be aware
        that the implication $:A^perpsubset B^perp:$ merely depends on the vector subspace $,operatorname{span}(B),$ being a subspace of $,operatorname{span}(A),$ (as implied by $Bsubset A$), and not on the "bigness" of $A$ and $B$ in the sense of sets.



        A note regarding terminology: $V^perp$ is usually called "orthogonal complement" only if $V$ is a subspace, else $Voplus V^perp$ won't yield the entire ambient vector space.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Yes, your argument is correct and straightforward.



        Although true on the level of set inclusions, one should be aware
        that the implication $:A^perpsubset B^perp:$ merely depends on the vector subspace $,operatorname{span}(B),$ being a subspace of $,operatorname{span}(A),$ (as implied by $Bsubset A$), and not on the "bigness" of $A$ and $B$ in the sense of sets.



        A note regarding terminology: $V^perp$ is usually called "orthogonal complement" only if $V$ is a subspace, else $Voplus V^perp$ won't yield the entire ambient vector space.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 13 at 20:18









        HannoHanno

        2,509629




        2,509629















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