Why do biadditive, balenced maps define a homomorphism of bimodules?












1












$begingroup$


While studying Morita's theorem, I came across the following statement which really confuses me:



Let A, B be rings and $_A M_B$,$_B N_A$ be bimodules. A biadditive, $B$-balanced map $f:Mtimes N rightarrow A$ defines a homomorphism of bimodules $tilde{f}:Motimes_BN rightarrow A$.



Now I understand that, by the universal property of the tensor product, the map $f$ defines a homomorphism of abelian groups. I also know that the abelian group $Motimes_BN$ can be equiped with a left and right action, turning it into an $(A,A)$-bimodule. What I don't get is why the induced morphism $tilde{f}$ is actually a homomorphism of bimodules. Specifically, the biadditive and $B$-balanced properties of $f$ don't seem to be enough for me to be able to prove that




  • $tilde{f}(a(motimes n))=atilde{f}(motimes n)$

  • $tilde{f}((motimes n)a)=tilde{f}(motimes n)a$


Moreover, wouldn't that imply that the map $f$ has the same properties on the first and second component?










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  • $begingroup$
    Just a comment. The word you're looking for is biadditive. Biaddictive is not a word, but it sounds pretty funny.
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Jan 9 at 1:26










  • $begingroup$
    Whoops... I didn't even noticed that I was compulsively writing it wrong (not just in here). Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 9 at 14:14
















1












$begingroup$


While studying Morita's theorem, I came across the following statement which really confuses me:



Let A, B be rings and $_A M_B$,$_B N_A$ be bimodules. A biadditive, $B$-balanced map $f:Mtimes N rightarrow A$ defines a homomorphism of bimodules $tilde{f}:Motimes_BN rightarrow A$.



Now I understand that, by the universal property of the tensor product, the map $f$ defines a homomorphism of abelian groups. I also know that the abelian group $Motimes_BN$ can be equiped with a left and right action, turning it into an $(A,A)$-bimodule. What I don't get is why the induced morphism $tilde{f}$ is actually a homomorphism of bimodules. Specifically, the biadditive and $B$-balanced properties of $f$ don't seem to be enough for me to be able to prove that




  • $tilde{f}(a(motimes n))=atilde{f}(motimes n)$

  • $tilde{f}((motimes n)a)=tilde{f}(motimes n)a$


Moreover, wouldn't that imply that the map $f$ has the same properties on the first and second component?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Just a comment. The word you're looking for is biadditive. Biaddictive is not a word, but it sounds pretty funny.
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Jan 9 at 1:26










  • $begingroup$
    Whoops... I didn't even noticed that I was compulsively writing it wrong (not just in here). Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 9 at 14:14














1












1








1





$begingroup$


While studying Morita's theorem, I came across the following statement which really confuses me:



Let A, B be rings and $_A M_B$,$_B N_A$ be bimodules. A biadditive, $B$-balanced map $f:Mtimes N rightarrow A$ defines a homomorphism of bimodules $tilde{f}:Motimes_BN rightarrow A$.



Now I understand that, by the universal property of the tensor product, the map $f$ defines a homomorphism of abelian groups. I also know that the abelian group $Motimes_BN$ can be equiped with a left and right action, turning it into an $(A,A)$-bimodule. What I don't get is why the induced morphism $tilde{f}$ is actually a homomorphism of bimodules. Specifically, the biadditive and $B$-balanced properties of $f$ don't seem to be enough for me to be able to prove that




  • $tilde{f}(a(motimes n))=atilde{f}(motimes n)$

  • $tilde{f}((motimes n)a)=tilde{f}(motimes n)a$


Moreover, wouldn't that imply that the map $f$ has the same properties on the first and second component?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




While studying Morita's theorem, I came across the following statement which really confuses me:



Let A, B be rings and $_A M_B$,$_B N_A$ be bimodules. A biadditive, $B$-balanced map $f:Mtimes N rightarrow A$ defines a homomorphism of bimodules $tilde{f}:Motimes_BN rightarrow A$.



Now I understand that, by the universal property of the tensor product, the map $f$ defines a homomorphism of abelian groups. I also know that the abelian group $Motimes_BN$ can be equiped with a left and right action, turning it into an $(A,A)$-bimodule. What I don't get is why the induced morphism $tilde{f}$ is actually a homomorphism of bimodules. Specifically, the biadditive and $B$-balanced properties of $f$ don't seem to be enough for me to be able to prove that




  • $tilde{f}(a(motimes n))=atilde{f}(motimes n)$

  • $tilde{f}((motimes n)a)=tilde{f}(motimes n)a$


Moreover, wouldn't that imply that the map $f$ has the same properties on the first and second component?







abstract-algebra tensor-products






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 9 at 14:12







user102845

















asked Jan 8 at 17:21









user102845user102845

183




183












  • $begingroup$
    Just a comment. The word you're looking for is biadditive. Biaddictive is not a word, but it sounds pretty funny.
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Jan 9 at 1:26










  • $begingroup$
    Whoops... I didn't even noticed that I was compulsively writing it wrong (not just in here). Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 9 at 14:14


















  • $begingroup$
    Just a comment. The word you're looking for is biadditive. Biaddictive is not a word, but it sounds pretty funny.
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Jan 9 at 1:26










  • $begingroup$
    Whoops... I didn't even noticed that I was compulsively writing it wrong (not just in here). Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 9 at 14:14
















$begingroup$
Just a comment. The word you're looking for is biadditive. Biaddictive is not a word, but it sounds pretty funny.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Jan 9 at 1:26




$begingroup$
Just a comment. The word you're looking for is biadditive. Biaddictive is not a word, but it sounds pretty funny.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Jan 9 at 1:26












$begingroup$
Whoops... I didn't even noticed that I was compulsively writing it wrong (not just in here). Thanks!
$endgroup$
– user102845
Jan 9 at 14:14




$begingroup$
Whoops... I didn't even noticed that I was compulsively writing it wrong (not just in here). Thanks!
$endgroup$
– user102845
Jan 9 at 14:14










1 Answer
1






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oldest

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0












$begingroup$

One needs $f(am,n)=af(m,n)$ and $f(m,na)=f(m,n)a$. Then those imply
$tilde f(amotimes n)=a tilde f(motimes n)$ and
$tilde f(motimes na)=tilde f(motimes n)a$ by the definition of $tilde f$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! That I can understand! I've been following the book "Methods of Representation Theory" by Curtis & Reiner and they seem to state that the biaddictive and balanced properties are enough. Maybe I just interpreted it wrong...
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 8 at 17:46












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1 Answer
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active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

One needs $f(am,n)=af(m,n)$ and $f(m,na)=f(m,n)a$. Then those imply
$tilde f(amotimes n)=a tilde f(motimes n)$ and
$tilde f(motimes na)=tilde f(motimes n)a$ by the definition of $tilde f$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! That I can understand! I've been following the book "Methods of Representation Theory" by Curtis & Reiner and they seem to state that the biaddictive and balanced properties are enough. Maybe I just interpreted it wrong...
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 8 at 17:46
















0












$begingroup$

One needs $f(am,n)=af(m,n)$ and $f(m,na)=f(m,n)a$. Then those imply
$tilde f(amotimes n)=a tilde f(motimes n)$ and
$tilde f(motimes na)=tilde f(motimes n)a$ by the definition of $tilde f$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! That I can understand! I've been following the book "Methods of Representation Theory" by Curtis & Reiner and they seem to state that the biaddictive and balanced properties are enough. Maybe I just interpreted it wrong...
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 8 at 17:46














0












0








0





$begingroup$

One needs $f(am,n)=af(m,n)$ and $f(m,na)=f(m,n)a$. Then those imply
$tilde f(amotimes n)=a tilde f(motimes n)$ and
$tilde f(motimes na)=tilde f(motimes n)a$ by the definition of $tilde f$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



One needs $f(am,n)=af(m,n)$ and $f(m,na)=f(m,n)a$. Then those imply
$tilde f(amotimes n)=a tilde f(motimes n)$ and
$tilde f(motimes na)=tilde f(motimes n)a$ by the definition of $tilde f$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 8 at 17:26









Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

107k1162135




107k1162135












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! That I can understand! I've been following the book "Methods of Representation Theory" by Curtis & Reiner and they seem to state that the biaddictive and balanced properties are enough. Maybe I just interpreted it wrong...
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 8 at 17:46


















  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! That I can understand! I've been following the book "Methods of Representation Theory" by Curtis & Reiner and they seem to state that the biaddictive and balanced properties are enough. Maybe I just interpreted it wrong...
    $endgroup$
    – user102845
    Jan 8 at 17:46
















$begingroup$
Thanks! That I can understand! I've been following the book "Methods of Representation Theory" by Curtis & Reiner and they seem to state that the biaddictive and balanced properties are enough. Maybe I just interpreted it wrong...
$endgroup$
– user102845
Jan 8 at 17:46




$begingroup$
Thanks! That I can understand! I've been following the book "Methods of Representation Theory" by Curtis & Reiner and they seem to state that the biaddictive and balanced properties are enough. Maybe I just interpreted it wrong...
$endgroup$
– user102845
Jan 8 at 17:46


















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