Are the rings $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ isomorphic?











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Are the rings $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ isomorphic, where $mathbb{R}^2=mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}$ and is the set of all pairs $(a,b)$ with $a,b in mathbb{R}$, and $mathbb{R}^3=mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}$ is the set of all triples $(a,b,c)$ with $a,b,c in mathbb{R}$, using component wise addition and multiplication?










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  • What are your thoughts on this matter?
    – MJD
    Dec 3 at 4:59






  • 2




    What happens when $R$ is finite?
    – D_S
    Dec 3 at 5:04










  • What is the definition of isomorphic for a pair of rings? How might the extra degree of freedom of $R^3$ contradict that definition?
    – AlexanderJ93
    Dec 3 at 5:13










  • @D_S If its finite than R^3>R^2. I do not see how this helps however, since both rings are infinite. Can I still prove some how that R^2<R^3?
    – JM23
    Dec 3 at 5:42






  • 1




    When you say "I thought they were isomorphic because each ring is an infinite ring", are you saying that all infinite rings are isomorphic?
    – bof
    Dec 3 at 5:56















up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2












Are the rings $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ isomorphic, where $mathbb{R}^2=mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}$ and is the set of all pairs $(a,b)$ with $a,b in mathbb{R}$, and $mathbb{R}^3=mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}$ is the set of all triples $(a,b,c)$ with $a,b,c in mathbb{R}$, using component wise addition and multiplication?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • What are your thoughts on this matter?
    – MJD
    Dec 3 at 4:59






  • 2




    What happens when $R$ is finite?
    – D_S
    Dec 3 at 5:04










  • What is the definition of isomorphic for a pair of rings? How might the extra degree of freedom of $R^3$ contradict that definition?
    – AlexanderJ93
    Dec 3 at 5:13










  • @D_S If its finite than R^3>R^2. I do not see how this helps however, since both rings are infinite. Can I still prove some how that R^2<R^3?
    – JM23
    Dec 3 at 5:42






  • 1




    When you say "I thought they were isomorphic because each ring is an infinite ring", are you saying that all infinite rings are isomorphic?
    – bof
    Dec 3 at 5:56













up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2






2





Are the rings $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ isomorphic, where $mathbb{R}^2=mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}$ and is the set of all pairs $(a,b)$ with $a,b in mathbb{R}$, and $mathbb{R}^3=mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}$ is the set of all triples $(a,b,c)$ with $a,b,c in mathbb{R}$, using component wise addition and multiplication?










share|cite|improve this question















Are the rings $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ isomorphic, where $mathbb{R}^2=mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}$ and is the set of all pairs $(a,b)$ with $a,b in mathbb{R}$, and $mathbb{R}^3=mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}+mathbb{R}$ is the set of all triples $(a,b,c)$ with $a,b,c in mathbb{R}$, using component wise addition and multiplication?







abstract-algebra ring-isomorphism






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edited Dec 3 at 5:46

























asked Dec 3 at 4:54









JM23

212




212












  • What are your thoughts on this matter?
    – MJD
    Dec 3 at 4:59






  • 2




    What happens when $R$ is finite?
    – D_S
    Dec 3 at 5:04










  • What is the definition of isomorphic for a pair of rings? How might the extra degree of freedom of $R^3$ contradict that definition?
    – AlexanderJ93
    Dec 3 at 5:13










  • @D_S If its finite than R^3>R^2. I do not see how this helps however, since both rings are infinite. Can I still prove some how that R^2<R^3?
    – JM23
    Dec 3 at 5:42






  • 1




    When you say "I thought they were isomorphic because each ring is an infinite ring", are you saying that all infinite rings are isomorphic?
    – bof
    Dec 3 at 5:56


















  • What are your thoughts on this matter?
    – MJD
    Dec 3 at 4:59






  • 2




    What happens when $R$ is finite?
    – D_S
    Dec 3 at 5:04










  • What is the definition of isomorphic for a pair of rings? How might the extra degree of freedom of $R^3$ contradict that definition?
    – AlexanderJ93
    Dec 3 at 5:13










  • @D_S If its finite than R^3>R^2. I do not see how this helps however, since both rings are infinite. Can I still prove some how that R^2<R^3?
    – JM23
    Dec 3 at 5:42






  • 1




    When you say "I thought they were isomorphic because each ring is an infinite ring", are you saying that all infinite rings are isomorphic?
    – bof
    Dec 3 at 5:56
















What are your thoughts on this matter?
– MJD
Dec 3 at 4:59




What are your thoughts on this matter?
– MJD
Dec 3 at 4:59




2




2




What happens when $R$ is finite?
– D_S
Dec 3 at 5:04




What happens when $R$ is finite?
– D_S
Dec 3 at 5:04












What is the definition of isomorphic for a pair of rings? How might the extra degree of freedom of $R^3$ contradict that definition?
– AlexanderJ93
Dec 3 at 5:13




What is the definition of isomorphic for a pair of rings? How might the extra degree of freedom of $R^3$ contradict that definition?
– AlexanderJ93
Dec 3 at 5:13












@D_S If its finite than R^3>R^2. I do not see how this helps however, since both rings are infinite. Can I still prove some how that R^2<R^3?
– JM23
Dec 3 at 5:42




@D_S If its finite than R^3>R^2. I do not see how this helps however, since both rings are infinite. Can I still prove some how that R^2<R^3?
– JM23
Dec 3 at 5:42




1




1




When you say "I thought they were isomorphic because each ring is an infinite ring", are you saying that all infinite rings are isomorphic?
– bof
Dec 3 at 5:56




When you say "I thought they were isomorphic because each ring is an infinite ring", are you saying that all infinite rings are isomorphic?
– bof
Dec 3 at 5:56










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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up vote
4
down vote













Consider idempotents in each ring, that is solutions of $e^2=e$. In your
first ring you are solving $(a^2,b^2)=(a,b)$, and in the second, $(a^2,b^2,c^2)=(a,b,c)$. How may solutions have you in each case?






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    For $mathbb{R}^2$ would you have $infty^2$ solutions and for $mathbb{R}$ you would have $infty^3$ solutions, and since $infty^2<infty^3$ then $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ are not isomorphic?
    – JM23
    Dec 3 at 7:59












  • @JM23: think again, por favor: if $(a^2, b^2) = (a, b)$, then $a^2 = a$, $b^2 = b$. Since $a, b in Bbb R$, the solutions are $a = 0, 1 = b$. There are thus $4$ idempotents in $Bbb R^2$ und so weiter . . .
    – Robert Lewis
    Dec 3 at 8:20


















up vote
1
down vote













HINT. If they are going to be isomorphic, it should work for any ring. Think of the special case where the ring is actually a field, i.e. $R=mathbb{k}$. Can you think of some theorems from basic Linear Algebra to say whether or not the rings $R^2=mathbb{k}^2$ and $R^3=mathbb{k}^3$ are isomorphic? Maybe focus on the only difference between them...






share|cite|improve this answer





















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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    active

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    up vote
    4
    down vote













    Consider idempotents in each ring, that is solutions of $e^2=e$. In your
    first ring you are solving $(a^2,b^2)=(a,b)$, and in the second, $(a^2,b^2,c^2)=(a,b,c)$. How may solutions have you in each case?






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      For $mathbb{R}^2$ would you have $infty^2$ solutions and for $mathbb{R}$ you would have $infty^3$ solutions, and since $infty^2<infty^3$ then $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ are not isomorphic?
      – JM23
      Dec 3 at 7:59












    • @JM23: think again, por favor: if $(a^2, b^2) = (a, b)$, then $a^2 = a$, $b^2 = b$. Since $a, b in Bbb R$, the solutions are $a = 0, 1 = b$. There are thus $4$ idempotents in $Bbb R^2$ und so weiter . . .
      – Robert Lewis
      Dec 3 at 8:20















    up vote
    4
    down vote













    Consider idempotents in each ring, that is solutions of $e^2=e$. In your
    first ring you are solving $(a^2,b^2)=(a,b)$, and in the second, $(a^2,b^2,c^2)=(a,b,c)$. How may solutions have you in each case?






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      For $mathbb{R}^2$ would you have $infty^2$ solutions and for $mathbb{R}$ you would have $infty^3$ solutions, and since $infty^2<infty^3$ then $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ are not isomorphic?
      – JM23
      Dec 3 at 7:59












    • @JM23: think again, por favor: if $(a^2, b^2) = (a, b)$, then $a^2 = a$, $b^2 = b$. Since $a, b in Bbb R$, the solutions are $a = 0, 1 = b$. There are thus $4$ idempotents in $Bbb R^2$ und so weiter . . .
      – Robert Lewis
      Dec 3 at 8:20













    up vote
    4
    down vote










    up vote
    4
    down vote









    Consider idempotents in each ring, that is solutions of $e^2=e$. In your
    first ring you are solving $(a^2,b^2)=(a,b)$, and in the second, $(a^2,b^2,c^2)=(a,b,c)$. How may solutions have you in each case?






    share|cite|improve this answer












    Consider idempotents in each ring, that is solutions of $e^2=e$. In your
    first ring you are solving $(a^2,b^2)=(a,b)$, and in the second, $(a^2,b^2,c^2)=(a,b,c)$. How may solutions have you in each case?







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Dec 3 at 7:01









    Lord Shark the Unknown

    98.7k958131




    98.7k958131








    • 1




      For $mathbb{R}^2$ would you have $infty^2$ solutions and for $mathbb{R}$ you would have $infty^3$ solutions, and since $infty^2<infty^3$ then $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ are not isomorphic?
      – JM23
      Dec 3 at 7:59












    • @JM23: think again, por favor: if $(a^2, b^2) = (a, b)$, then $a^2 = a$, $b^2 = b$. Since $a, b in Bbb R$, the solutions are $a = 0, 1 = b$. There are thus $4$ idempotents in $Bbb R^2$ und so weiter . . .
      – Robert Lewis
      Dec 3 at 8:20














    • 1




      For $mathbb{R}^2$ would you have $infty^2$ solutions and for $mathbb{R}$ you would have $infty^3$ solutions, and since $infty^2<infty^3$ then $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ are not isomorphic?
      – JM23
      Dec 3 at 7:59












    • @JM23: think again, por favor: if $(a^2, b^2) = (a, b)$, then $a^2 = a$, $b^2 = b$. Since $a, b in Bbb R$, the solutions are $a = 0, 1 = b$. There are thus $4$ idempotents in $Bbb R^2$ und so weiter . . .
      – Robert Lewis
      Dec 3 at 8:20








    1




    1




    For $mathbb{R}^2$ would you have $infty^2$ solutions and for $mathbb{R}$ you would have $infty^3$ solutions, and since $infty^2<infty^3$ then $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ are not isomorphic?
    – JM23
    Dec 3 at 7:59






    For $mathbb{R}^2$ would you have $infty^2$ solutions and for $mathbb{R}$ you would have $infty^3$ solutions, and since $infty^2<infty^3$ then $mathbb{R}^2$ and $mathbb{R}^3$ are not isomorphic?
    – JM23
    Dec 3 at 7:59














    @JM23: think again, por favor: if $(a^2, b^2) = (a, b)$, then $a^2 = a$, $b^2 = b$. Since $a, b in Bbb R$, the solutions are $a = 0, 1 = b$. There are thus $4$ idempotents in $Bbb R^2$ und so weiter . . .
    – Robert Lewis
    Dec 3 at 8:20




    @JM23: think again, por favor: if $(a^2, b^2) = (a, b)$, then $a^2 = a$, $b^2 = b$. Since $a, b in Bbb R$, the solutions are $a = 0, 1 = b$. There are thus $4$ idempotents in $Bbb R^2$ und so weiter . . .
    – Robert Lewis
    Dec 3 at 8:20










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    HINT. If they are going to be isomorphic, it should work for any ring. Think of the special case where the ring is actually a field, i.e. $R=mathbb{k}$. Can you think of some theorems from basic Linear Algebra to say whether or not the rings $R^2=mathbb{k}^2$ and $R^3=mathbb{k}^3$ are isomorphic? Maybe focus on the only difference between them...






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      HINT. If they are going to be isomorphic, it should work for any ring. Think of the special case where the ring is actually a field, i.e. $R=mathbb{k}$. Can you think of some theorems from basic Linear Algebra to say whether or not the rings $R^2=mathbb{k}^2$ and $R^3=mathbb{k}^3$ are isomorphic? Maybe focus on the only difference between them...






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        HINT. If they are going to be isomorphic, it should work for any ring. Think of the special case where the ring is actually a field, i.e. $R=mathbb{k}$. Can you think of some theorems from basic Linear Algebra to say whether or not the rings $R^2=mathbb{k}^2$ and $R^3=mathbb{k}^3$ are isomorphic? Maybe focus on the only difference between them...






        share|cite|improve this answer












        HINT. If they are going to be isomorphic, it should work for any ring. Think of the special case where the ring is actually a field, i.e. $R=mathbb{k}$. Can you think of some theorems from basic Linear Algebra to say whether or not the rings $R^2=mathbb{k}^2$ and $R^3=mathbb{k}^3$ are isomorphic? Maybe focus on the only difference between them...







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 3 at 5:02









        mathematics2x2life

        8,03221738




        8,03221738






























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