Order statistic of i.i.d exponential($lambda$) random variables, $X_{(n, k_n)}$ convergence in probability











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Suppose that $X_1,X_2$,....are iid from exponential($lambda$).For n $geq$ 1, let $X_{(n,1)}le X_{(n,2)}le X_{(n,3)}le.......le X_{(n,n)}$ be the order statistics of $X_1,X_2....X_n$. Suppose that $k_n$ is a sequence of integers satisfying $1le k_n le n$ for all n, and


${lim_{xto infty}frac{k_n}{n}} = pin(0,1)$


Show that as n$toinfty$



$qquadqquadqquadqquadmathit{{X_{(n, k_n)}to-frac{1}{lambda}log(1-p)}}$


I am thankful for any help.










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  • Why the crazy encoding?
    – Did
    Dec 3 at 7:04










  • was my first time thats why
    – Amelia
    Dec 3 at 7:08















up vote
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Suppose that $X_1,X_2$,....are iid from exponential($lambda$).For n $geq$ 1, let $X_{(n,1)}le X_{(n,2)}le X_{(n,3)}le.......le X_{(n,n)}$ be the order statistics of $X_1,X_2....X_n$. Suppose that $k_n$ is a sequence of integers satisfying $1le k_n le n$ for all n, and


${lim_{xto infty}frac{k_n}{n}} = pin(0,1)$


Show that as n$toinfty$



$qquadqquadqquadqquadmathit{{X_{(n, k_n)}to-frac{1}{lambda}log(1-p)}}$


I am thankful for any help.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Why the crazy encoding?
    – Did
    Dec 3 at 7:04










  • was my first time thats why
    – Amelia
    Dec 3 at 7:08













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Suppose that $X_1,X_2$,....are iid from exponential($lambda$).For n $geq$ 1, let $X_{(n,1)}le X_{(n,2)}le X_{(n,3)}le.......le X_{(n,n)}$ be the order statistics of $X_1,X_2....X_n$. Suppose that $k_n$ is a sequence of integers satisfying $1le k_n le n$ for all n, and


${lim_{xto infty}frac{k_n}{n}} = pin(0,1)$


Show that as n$toinfty$



$qquadqquadqquadqquadmathit{{X_{(n, k_n)}to-frac{1}{lambda}log(1-p)}}$


I am thankful for any help.










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose that $X_1,X_2$,....are iid from exponential($lambda$).For n $geq$ 1, let $X_{(n,1)}le X_{(n,2)}le X_{(n,3)}le.......le X_{(n,n)}$ be the order statistics of $X_1,X_2....X_n$. Suppose that $k_n$ is a sequence of integers satisfying $1le k_n le n$ for all n, and


${lim_{xto infty}frac{k_n}{n}} = pin(0,1)$


Show that as n$toinfty$



$qquadqquadqquadqquadmathit{{X_{(n, k_n)}to-frac{1}{lambda}log(1-p)}}$


I am thankful for any help.







probability convergence order-statistics exponential-distribution






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edited Dec 3 at 7:03









Did

245k23217452




245k23217452










asked Dec 3 at 4:19









Amelia

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228












  • Why the crazy encoding?
    – Did
    Dec 3 at 7:04










  • was my first time thats why
    – Amelia
    Dec 3 at 7:08


















  • Why the crazy encoding?
    – Did
    Dec 3 at 7:04










  • was my first time thats why
    – Amelia
    Dec 3 at 7:08
















Why the crazy encoding?
– Did
Dec 3 at 7:04




Why the crazy encoding?
– Did
Dec 3 at 7:04












was my first time thats why
– Amelia
Dec 3 at 7:08




was my first time thats why
– Amelia
Dec 3 at 7:08










1 Answer
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Fix $epsilon > 0$.



Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
begin{align}
P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
&le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
+ P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
\
&= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
+ P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
\
&= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
\
&= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
end{align}

By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    Fix $epsilon > 0$.



    Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
    and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
    begin{align}
    P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
    &le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
    + P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
    \
    &= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
    + P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
    \
    &= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
    \
    &= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
    end{align}

    By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Fix $epsilon > 0$.



      Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
      and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
      begin{align}
      P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
      &le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
      + P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
      \
      &= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
      + P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
      \
      &= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
      \
      &= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
      end{align}

      By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Fix $epsilon > 0$.



        Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
        and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
        begin{align}
        P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
        &le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
        + P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
        \
        &= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
        + P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
        \
        &= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
        \
        &= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
        end{align}

        By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Fix $epsilon > 0$.



        Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
        and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
        begin{align}
        P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
        &le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
        + P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
        \
        &= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
        + P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
        \
        &= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
        \
        &= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
        end{align}

        By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.







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        answered Dec 3 at 5:00









        angryavian

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        37.8k13180






























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