Order statistic of i.i.d exponential($lambda$) random variables, $X_{(n, k_n)}$ convergence in probability
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Suppose that $X_1,X_2$,....are iid from exponential($lambda$).For n $geq$ 1, let $X_{(n,1)}le X_{(n,2)}le X_{(n,3)}le.......le X_{(n,n)}$ be the order statistics of $X_1,X_2....X_n$. Suppose that $k_n$ is a sequence of integers satisfying $1le k_n le n$ for all n, and
${lim_{xto infty}frac{k_n}{n}} = pin(0,1)$
Show that as n$toinfty$
$qquadqquadqquadqquadmathit{{X_{(n, k_n)}to-frac{1}{lambda}log(1-p)}}$
I am thankful for any help.
probability convergence order-statistics exponential-distribution
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Suppose that $X_1,X_2$,....are iid from exponential($lambda$).For n $geq$ 1, let $X_{(n,1)}le X_{(n,2)}le X_{(n,3)}le.......le X_{(n,n)}$ be the order statistics of $X_1,X_2....X_n$. Suppose that $k_n$ is a sequence of integers satisfying $1le k_n le n$ for all n, and
${lim_{xto infty}frac{k_n}{n}} = pin(0,1)$
Show that as n$toinfty$
$qquadqquadqquadqquadmathit{{X_{(n, k_n)}to-frac{1}{lambda}log(1-p)}}$
I am thankful for any help.
probability convergence order-statistics exponential-distribution
Why the crazy encoding?
– Did
Dec 3 at 7:04
was my first time thats why
– Amelia
Dec 3 at 7:08
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Suppose that $X_1,X_2$,....are iid from exponential($lambda$).For n $geq$ 1, let $X_{(n,1)}le X_{(n,2)}le X_{(n,3)}le.......le X_{(n,n)}$ be the order statistics of $X_1,X_2....X_n$. Suppose that $k_n$ is a sequence of integers satisfying $1le k_n le n$ for all n, and
${lim_{xto infty}frac{k_n}{n}} = pin(0,1)$
Show that as n$toinfty$
$qquadqquadqquadqquadmathit{{X_{(n, k_n)}to-frac{1}{lambda}log(1-p)}}$
I am thankful for any help.
probability convergence order-statistics exponential-distribution
Suppose that $X_1,X_2$,....are iid from exponential($lambda$).For n $geq$ 1, let $X_{(n,1)}le X_{(n,2)}le X_{(n,3)}le.......le X_{(n,n)}$ be the order statistics of $X_1,X_2....X_n$. Suppose that $k_n$ is a sequence of integers satisfying $1le k_n le n$ for all n, and
${lim_{xto infty}frac{k_n}{n}} = pin(0,1)$
Show that as n$toinfty$
$qquadqquadqquadqquadmathit{{X_{(n, k_n)}to-frac{1}{lambda}log(1-p)}}$
I am thankful for any help.
probability convergence order-statistics exponential-distribution
probability convergence order-statistics exponential-distribution
edited Dec 3 at 7:03
Did
245k23217452
245k23217452
asked Dec 3 at 4:19
Amelia
228
228
Why the crazy encoding?
– Did
Dec 3 at 7:04
was my first time thats why
– Amelia
Dec 3 at 7:08
add a comment |
Why the crazy encoding?
– Did
Dec 3 at 7:04
was my first time thats why
– Amelia
Dec 3 at 7:08
Why the crazy encoding?
– Did
Dec 3 at 7:04
Why the crazy encoding?
– Did
Dec 3 at 7:04
was my first time thats why
– Amelia
Dec 3 at 7:08
was my first time thats why
– Amelia
Dec 3 at 7:08
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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1
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Fix $epsilon > 0$.
Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
begin{align}
P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
&le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
+ P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
\
&= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
+ P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
\
&= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
\
&= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
end{align}
By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
Fix $epsilon > 0$.
Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
begin{align}
P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
&le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
+ P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
\
&= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
+ P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
\
&= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
\
&= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
end{align}
By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Fix $epsilon > 0$.
Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
begin{align}
P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
&le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
+ P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
\
&= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
+ P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
\
&= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
\
&= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
end{align}
By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Fix $epsilon > 0$.
Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
begin{align}
P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
&le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
+ P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
\
&= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
+ P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
\
&= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
\
&= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
end{align}
By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.
Fix $epsilon > 0$.
Let $Y_1 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon})$
and $Y_2 sim text{Binom}(n, (1-p) e^{-lambda epsilon})$.
begin{align}
P(|X_{n,k_n} + log(1-p)/lambda| > epsilon)
&le P(X_{n,k_n} < - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon)
+ P(X_{n,k_n} > - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon)
\
&= P(text{less than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda - epsilon$})
+ P(text{more than $n-k_n$ of the $X_i$ are $ge - log(1-p)/lambda + epsilon$})
\
&= P(Y_1 < n-k_n) + P(Y_2 > n-k_n)
\
&= P(Y_1/n < 1 - k_n/n) + P(Y_2/n > 1 - k_n/n).
end{align}
By the law of large numbers, $Y_1/n to (1-p) e^{lambda epsilon} > 1 - p$ in probability, so the first term will tend to zero. Similarly, the second term will tend to zero.
answered Dec 3 at 5:00
angryavian
37.8k13180
37.8k13180
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Why the crazy encoding?
– Did
Dec 3 at 7:04
was my first time thats why
– Amelia
Dec 3 at 7:08