Composition of Darboux functions [closed]












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If $f$ and $g$ are two Darboux functions, is their composition also a Darboux function? I believe it is, but I can't prove it.










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closed as off-topic by Saad, mrtaurho, RRL, Ben, José Carlos Santos Dec 18 '18 at 8:26


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, mrtaurho, RRL, Ben, José Carlos Santos

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    Could you elaborate on why you believe it is and what you tried to prove it?
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    – eyeballfrog
    Dec 18 '18 at 5:28
















0












$begingroup$


If $f$ and $g$ are two Darboux functions, is their composition also a Darboux function? I believe it is, but I can't prove it.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Saad, mrtaurho, RRL, Ben, José Carlos Santos Dec 18 '18 at 8:26


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, mrtaurho, RRL, Ben, José Carlos Santos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • $begingroup$
    Could you elaborate on why you believe it is and what you tried to prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – eyeballfrog
    Dec 18 '18 at 5:28














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$begingroup$


If $f$ and $g$ are two Darboux functions, is their composition also a Darboux function? I believe it is, but I can't prove it.










share|cite|improve this question









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If $f$ and $g$ are two Darboux functions, is their composition also a Darboux function? I believe it is, but I can't prove it.







real-analysis






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asked Dec 17 '18 at 18:48









JustAnAmateurJustAnAmateur

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closed as off-topic by Saad, mrtaurho, RRL, Ben, José Carlos Santos Dec 18 '18 at 8:26


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, mrtaurho, RRL, Ben, José Carlos Santos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Saad, mrtaurho, RRL, Ben, José Carlos Santos Dec 18 '18 at 8:26


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, mrtaurho, RRL, Ben, José Carlos Santos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • $begingroup$
    Could you elaborate on why you believe it is and what you tried to prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – eyeballfrog
    Dec 18 '18 at 5:28


















  • $begingroup$
    Could you elaborate on why you believe it is and what you tried to prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – eyeballfrog
    Dec 18 '18 at 5:28
















$begingroup$
Could you elaborate on why you believe it is and what you tried to prove it?
$endgroup$
– eyeballfrog
Dec 18 '18 at 5:28




$begingroup$
Could you elaborate on why you believe it is and what you tried to prove it?
$endgroup$
– eyeballfrog
Dec 18 '18 at 5:28










2 Answers
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Let $a<b$ and $f(g(a))<t<f(g(b))$.



$f$ is Darboux, so there is $g(a)<s<g(b)$ such that $f(s)=t$. (Assuming $g(a)<g(b)$, otherwise swap)



$g$ is Darboux, so there is $a<r<b$ such that $g(r)=s$.



But then we have $a<r<b$ and $f(g(r))=t$.






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    0












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    Hint: By definition, for a Darboux function the image of an interval is an interval.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2












      $begingroup$

      Let $a<b$ and $f(g(a))<t<f(g(b))$.



      $f$ is Darboux, so there is $g(a)<s<g(b)$ such that $f(s)=t$. (Assuming $g(a)<g(b)$, otherwise swap)



      $g$ is Darboux, so there is $a<r<b$ such that $g(r)=s$.



      But then we have $a<r<b$ and $f(g(r))=t$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        Let $a<b$ and $f(g(a))<t<f(g(b))$.



        $f$ is Darboux, so there is $g(a)<s<g(b)$ such that $f(s)=t$. (Assuming $g(a)<g(b)$, otherwise swap)



        $g$ is Darboux, so there is $a<r<b$ such that $g(r)=s$.



        But then we have $a<r<b$ and $f(g(r))=t$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Let $a<b$ and $f(g(a))<t<f(g(b))$.



          $f$ is Darboux, so there is $g(a)<s<g(b)$ such that $f(s)=t$. (Assuming $g(a)<g(b)$, otherwise swap)



          $g$ is Darboux, so there is $a<r<b$ such that $g(r)=s$.



          But then we have $a<r<b$ and $f(g(r))=t$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Let $a<b$ and $f(g(a))<t<f(g(b))$.



          $f$ is Darboux, so there is $g(a)<s<g(b)$ such that $f(s)=t$. (Assuming $g(a)<g(b)$, otherwise swap)



          $g$ is Darboux, so there is $a<r<b$ such that $g(r)=s$.



          But then we have $a<r<b$ and $f(g(r))=t$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 17 '18 at 19:09









          FedericoFederico

          4,919514




          4,919514























              0












              $begingroup$

              Hint: By definition, for a Darboux function the image of an interval is an interval.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Hint: By definition, for a Darboux function the image of an interval is an interval.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Hint: By definition, for a Darboux function the image of an interval is an interval.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Hint: By definition, for a Darboux function the image of an interval is an interval.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 17 '18 at 19:52









                  ir7ir7

                  4,13311015




                  4,13311015















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