If $f$ is differentiable, then $f$ is continuous












2












$begingroup$


Let $f: mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R} $ be a function. Prove or disprove:



1) If $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$

2) If $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$



What I already have:



If I want to show that $f$ is differentiable at $a$ (and with that also continuous at $a$), I do it like this:



$lim_{hto 0} f(a+h)-f(a)= lim_{hto 0} {frac {f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}cdot h}$



$=lim_{hto 0} {frac {f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}cdot lim_{hto 0}h}=f'(a)cdot0=0 $



However here I need to show it for a point $(a,b)$. My idea was to show it like this:



If $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b) to forall h in mathbb{R}^2$



$f((a, b) + h) - f(a, b) = nabla f(a,b)*h + r(h)$ and $frac{r(h)}{|h| } to 0 $ for $h to 0$



2) I know that this is not true. So would a counterexample be $f(x,y)= |x| + y| ? $



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @avs I wasn't sure when I looked, but isn't it possible that the OP means 'at' rather than 'in'? I'd suggest rolling back until clarification comes. Edits should be for minor corrections/formatting. Misuse of notation/misunderstanding should be clarified/corrected in comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuri2060
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:26








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Let $f~:~Bbb R^2to Bbb R$ be a function.... If $f$ is differentiable in $(a,b)$..." What does $(a,b)$ represent here? Do you mean for $f$ to be a function from $Bbb RtoBbb R$ in which case $(a,b)$ represents an an open interval? Do you mean for $Bbb R^2$ to be the domain in which case $(a,b)$ represents an open ball centered at $a$ with radius $b$? Do you mean to just be differentiable/continuous at the point $(a,b)$ instead?
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:26








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Many people on MSE write "in $x$" to mean "at $x$" for reasons I've never understood.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:50








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @zhw., it could be the language barrier. In many languages, one says "in a point" rather than "at a point". This is the case, for example, in French [ljk.imag.fr/membres/Bernard.Ycart/mel/lc/node10.html], and also in some Eastern European languages.
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Jul 19 '17 at 21:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Shuri2060, you are right, and I deleted the comment. Also, you are right: not that you pointed out what I misread, I am pretty sure the OP meant "at a point" (for a possible explanation, see my comment to zhw. above).
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Jul 19 '17 at 21:46


















2












$begingroup$


Let $f: mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R} $ be a function. Prove or disprove:



1) If $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$

2) If $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$



What I already have:



If I want to show that $f$ is differentiable at $a$ (and with that also continuous at $a$), I do it like this:



$lim_{hto 0} f(a+h)-f(a)= lim_{hto 0} {frac {f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}cdot h}$



$=lim_{hto 0} {frac {f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}cdot lim_{hto 0}h}=f'(a)cdot0=0 $



However here I need to show it for a point $(a,b)$. My idea was to show it like this:



If $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b) to forall h in mathbb{R}^2$



$f((a, b) + h) - f(a, b) = nabla f(a,b)*h + r(h)$ and $frac{r(h)}{|h| } to 0 $ for $h to 0$



2) I know that this is not true. So would a counterexample be $f(x,y)= |x| + y| ? $



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @avs I wasn't sure when I looked, but isn't it possible that the OP means 'at' rather than 'in'? I'd suggest rolling back until clarification comes. Edits should be for minor corrections/formatting. Misuse of notation/misunderstanding should be clarified/corrected in comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuri2060
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:26








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Let $f~:~Bbb R^2to Bbb R$ be a function.... If $f$ is differentiable in $(a,b)$..." What does $(a,b)$ represent here? Do you mean for $f$ to be a function from $Bbb RtoBbb R$ in which case $(a,b)$ represents an an open interval? Do you mean for $Bbb R^2$ to be the domain in which case $(a,b)$ represents an open ball centered at $a$ with radius $b$? Do you mean to just be differentiable/continuous at the point $(a,b)$ instead?
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:26








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Many people on MSE write "in $x$" to mean "at $x$" for reasons I've never understood.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:50








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @zhw., it could be the language barrier. In many languages, one says "in a point" rather than "at a point". This is the case, for example, in French [ljk.imag.fr/membres/Bernard.Ycart/mel/lc/node10.html], and also in some Eastern European languages.
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Jul 19 '17 at 21:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Shuri2060, you are right, and I deleted the comment. Also, you are right: not that you pointed out what I misread, I am pretty sure the OP meant "at a point" (for a possible explanation, see my comment to zhw. above).
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Jul 19 '17 at 21:46
















2












2








2


2



$begingroup$


Let $f: mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R} $ be a function. Prove or disprove:



1) If $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$

2) If $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$



What I already have:



If I want to show that $f$ is differentiable at $a$ (and with that also continuous at $a$), I do it like this:



$lim_{hto 0} f(a+h)-f(a)= lim_{hto 0} {frac {f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}cdot h}$



$=lim_{hto 0} {frac {f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}cdot lim_{hto 0}h}=f'(a)cdot0=0 $



However here I need to show it for a point $(a,b)$. My idea was to show it like this:



If $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b) to forall h in mathbb{R}^2$



$f((a, b) + h) - f(a, b) = nabla f(a,b)*h + r(h)$ and $frac{r(h)}{|h| } to 0 $ for $h to 0$



2) I know that this is not true. So would a counterexample be $f(x,y)= |x| + y| ? $



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $f: mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R} $ be a function. Prove or disprove:



1) If $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$

2) If $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$



What I already have:



If I want to show that $f$ is differentiable at $a$ (and with that also continuous at $a$), I do it like this:



$lim_{hto 0} f(a+h)-f(a)= lim_{hto 0} {frac {f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}cdot h}$



$=lim_{hto 0} {frac {f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}cdot lim_{hto 0}h}=f'(a)cdot0=0 $



However here I need to show it for a point $(a,b)$. My idea was to show it like this:



If $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b) to forall h in mathbb{R}^2$



$f((a, b) + h) - f(a, b) = nabla f(a,b)*h + r(h)$ and $frac{r(h)}{|h| } to 0 $ for $h to 0$



2) I know that this is not true. So would a counterexample be $f(x,y)= |x| + y| ? $



Thanks in advance!







calculus real-analysis analysis multivariable-calculus continuity






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 20 '17 at 11:27









José Carlos Santos

154k22123226




154k22123226










asked Jul 19 '17 at 20:15









PhysXPhysX

1328




1328








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @avs I wasn't sure when I looked, but isn't it possible that the OP means 'at' rather than 'in'? I'd suggest rolling back until clarification comes. Edits should be for minor corrections/formatting. Misuse of notation/misunderstanding should be clarified/corrected in comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuri2060
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:26








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Let $f~:~Bbb R^2to Bbb R$ be a function.... If $f$ is differentiable in $(a,b)$..." What does $(a,b)$ represent here? Do you mean for $f$ to be a function from $Bbb RtoBbb R$ in which case $(a,b)$ represents an an open interval? Do you mean for $Bbb R^2$ to be the domain in which case $(a,b)$ represents an open ball centered at $a$ with radius $b$? Do you mean to just be differentiable/continuous at the point $(a,b)$ instead?
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:26








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Many people on MSE write "in $x$" to mean "at $x$" for reasons I've never understood.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:50








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @zhw., it could be the language barrier. In many languages, one says "in a point" rather than "at a point". This is the case, for example, in French [ljk.imag.fr/membres/Bernard.Ycart/mel/lc/node10.html], and also in some Eastern European languages.
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Jul 19 '17 at 21:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Shuri2060, you are right, and I deleted the comment. Also, you are right: not that you pointed out what I misread, I am pretty sure the OP meant "at a point" (for a possible explanation, see my comment to zhw. above).
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Jul 19 '17 at 21:46
















  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @avs I wasn't sure when I looked, but isn't it possible that the OP means 'at' rather than 'in'? I'd suggest rolling back until clarification comes. Edits should be for minor corrections/formatting. Misuse of notation/misunderstanding should be clarified/corrected in comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuri2060
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:26








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Let $f~:~Bbb R^2to Bbb R$ be a function.... If $f$ is differentiable in $(a,b)$..." What does $(a,b)$ represent here? Do you mean for $f$ to be a function from $Bbb RtoBbb R$ in which case $(a,b)$ represents an an open interval? Do you mean for $Bbb R^2$ to be the domain in which case $(a,b)$ represents an open ball centered at $a$ with radius $b$? Do you mean to just be differentiable/continuous at the point $(a,b)$ instead?
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:26








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Many people on MSE write "in $x$" to mean "at $x$" for reasons I've never understood.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jul 19 '17 at 20:50








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @zhw., it could be the language barrier. In many languages, one says "in a point" rather than "at a point". This is the case, for example, in French [ljk.imag.fr/membres/Bernard.Ycart/mel/lc/node10.html], and also in some Eastern European languages.
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Jul 19 '17 at 21:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Shuri2060, you are right, and I deleted the comment. Also, you are right: not that you pointed out what I misread, I am pretty sure the OP meant "at a point" (for a possible explanation, see my comment to zhw. above).
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Jul 19 '17 at 21:46










3




3




$begingroup$
@avs I wasn't sure when I looked, but isn't it possible that the OP means 'at' rather than 'in'? I'd suggest rolling back until clarification comes. Edits should be for minor corrections/formatting. Misuse of notation/misunderstanding should be clarified/corrected in comments.
$endgroup$
– Shuri2060
Jul 19 '17 at 20:26






$begingroup$
@avs I wasn't sure when I looked, but isn't it possible that the OP means 'at' rather than 'in'? I'd suggest rolling back until clarification comes. Edits should be for minor corrections/formatting. Misuse of notation/misunderstanding should be clarified/corrected in comments.
$endgroup$
– Shuri2060
Jul 19 '17 at 20:26






1




1




$begingroup$
"Let $f~:~Bbb R^2to Bbb R$ be a function.... If $f$ is differentiable in $(a,b)$..." What does $(a,b)$ represent here? Do you mean for $f$ to be a function from $Bbb RtoBbb R$ in which case $(a,b)$ represents an an open interval? Do you mean for $Bbb R^2$ to be the domain in which case $(a,b)$ represents an open ball centered at $a$ with radius $b$? Do you mean to just be differentiable/continuous at the point $(a,b)$ instead?
$endgroup$
– JMoravitz
Jul 19 '17 at 20:26






$begingroup$
"Let $f~:~Bbb R^2to Bbb R$ be a function.... If $f$ is differentiable in $(a,b)$..." What does $(a,b)$ represent here? Do you mean for $f$ to be a function from $Bbb RtoBbb R$ in which case $(a,b)$ represents an an open interval? Do you mean for $Bbb R^2$ to be the domain in which case $(a,b)$ represents an open ball centered at $a$ with radius $b$? Do you mean to just be differentiable/continuous at the point $(a,b)$ instead?
$endgroup$
– JMoravitz
Jul 19 '17 at 20:26






2




2




$begingroup$
Many people on MSE write "in $x$" to mean "at $x$" for reasons I've never understood.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jul 19 '17 at 20:50






$begingroup$
Many people on MSE write "in $x$" to mean "at $x$" for reasons I've never understood.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jul 19 '17 at 20:50






3




3




$begingroup$
@zhw., it could be the language barrier. In many languages, one says "in a point" rather than "at a point". This is the case, for example, in French [ljk.imag.fr/membres/Bernard.Ycart/mel/lc/node10.html], and also in some Eastern European languages.
$endgroup$
– avs
Jul 19 '17 at 21:46




$begingroup$
@zhw., it could be the language barrier. In many languages, one says "in a point" rather than "at a point". This is the case, for example, in French [ljk.imag.fr/membres/Bernard.Ycart/mel/lc/node10.html], and also in some Eastern European languages.
$endgroup$
– avs
Jul 19 '17 at 21:46




1




1




$begingroup$
@Shuri2060, you are right, and I deleted the comment. Also, you are right: not that you pointed out what I misread, I am pretty sure the OP meant "at a point" (for a possible explanation, see my comment to zhw. above).
$endgroup$
– avs
Jul 19 '17 at 21:46






$begingroup$
@Shuri2060, you are right, and I deleted the comment. Also, you are right: not that you pointed out what I misread, I am pretty sure the OP meant "at a point" (for a possible explanation, see my comment to zhw. above).
$endgroup$
– avs
Jul 19 '17 at 21:46












2 Answers
2






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$begingroup$

The first statement can be proved in a way you already drafted using the total derivate
$$lim_{hto 0} lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert \
= lim_{hto 0} {left( frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lVert hrVertright) } \
=lim_{hto 0} {frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lim_{hto 0}lVert hrVert}\
=lVert f'(a)rVertcdot0\
=0$$



$a$ is a vector from $mathbb{R^2}$ and $f'(a)$ is a linear mapping from $mathbb{R^2}to mathbb{R}$.



The second statement can be disproven by your counterexample.
The function



$$f(x,y)= |x| + |y| $$



is continous, but at $(0,0)$ we have



$$ lim_{(h,0)to 0} frac{f(h,0)-f(0,0)}{h}= lim_{hto 0}frac{|h|}{h}=begin{cases}-1, h uparrow 0 \ +1, h downarrow 0 end{cases} $$
so this limit depends on how you approach $(0,0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    2












    $begingroup$

    For a function $f : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, from $U to mathbb{R}^m$, where $U subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ is open), we say that $f$ is differentiable at $mathbf{x} in mathbb{R}^2$ if there exists some linear mapping $A : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ such that
    $$lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x}) - A(mathbf{h})}{||mathbf{h}||} = 0,$$ or equivalently
    $$f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) = f(mathbf{x}) + A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h}),$$
    where $o(mathbf{h})$ is a function that satisfies $lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| = 0$. When $A$ exists, we denote it $f'(mathbf{x})$ or $D_f(mathbf{x})$. [See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derivative#Total_derivative.2C_total_differential_and_Jacobian_matrix for further details.]



    (To illustrate why we cannot just use
    $$text{The derivative of $f$ at $mathbf{x}$ is $f'(mathbf{x}) = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x})}{||mathbf{h}||}$ when the limit exists,}$$ consider the the function $f((x,y)) = x$. Then $f((x,y) + (u, v)) = x + u = f((x, y)) + (1,0)cdot(u,v)$, so is (as expected) differentiable. However, $lim_{u to 0} (f((x,y)+(u,0)) - f((x,y)))/||(u,0)|| = lim_{u to 0} u/|u|$, which does not exists.)



    We can however use the second definition to prove that a function differentiable at a point is also continuous at that point.



    1) We have
    $$0 leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |f((a,b) + mathbf{h}) - f((a, b))| = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h})| leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} (||A|| + 1)||mathbf{h}|| = 0,$$
    where the inequality is deduced from $|A(mathbf{h})| leq ||A||||mathbf{h}||$ and from $o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| to 0$, which implies eventually $|o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}||| leq 1 implies |o(mathbf{h})| leq ||mathbf{h}||$. Hence, we must have equality, and therefore $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$.



    2) The proof given by @miracle173 is correct, but instead because differentiability in $mathbb{R}^2$ implies the existence of directional/partial derivatives. Note also that $f((x,y))=|x|$ would have sufficed.






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
      2






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      active

      oldest

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      4












      $begingroup$

      The first statement can be proved in a way you already drafted using the total derivate
      $$lim_{hto 0} lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert \
      = lim_{hto 0} {left( frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lVert hrVertright) } \
      =lim_{hto 0} {frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lim_{hto 0}lVert hrVert}\
      =lVert f'(a)rVertcdot0\
      =0$$



      $a$ is a vector from $mathbb{R^2}$ and $f'(a)$ is a linear mapping from $mathbb{R^2}to mathbb{R}$.



      The second statement can be disproven by your counterexample.
      The function



      $$f(x,y)= |x| + |y| $$



      is continous, but at $(0,0)$ we have



      $$ lim_{(h,0)to 0} frac{f(h,0)-f(0,0)}{h}= lim_{hto 0}frac{|h|}{h}=begin{cases}-1, h uparrow 0 \ +1, h downarrow 0 end{cases} $$
      so this limit depends on how you approach $(0,0)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        4












        $begingroup$

        The first statement can be proved in a way you already drafted using the total derivate
        $$lim_{hto 0} lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert \
        = lim_{hto 0} {left( frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lVert hrVertright) } \
        =lim_{hto 0} {frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lim_{hto 0}lVert hrVert}\
        =lVert f'(a)rVertcdot0\
        =0$$



        $a$ is a vector from $mathbb{R^2}$ and $f'(a)$ is a linear mapping from $mathbb{R^2}to mathbb{R}$.



        The second statement can be disproven by your counterexample.
        The function



        $$f(x,y)= |x| + |y| $$



        is continous, but at $(0,0)$ we have



        $$ lim_{(h,0)to 0} frac{f(h,0)-f(0,0)}{h}= lim_{hto 0}frac{|h|}{h}=begin{cases}-1, h uparrow 0 \ +1, h downarrow 0 end{cases} $$
        so this limit depends on how you approach $(0,0)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          The first statement can be proved in a way you already drafted using the total derivate
          $$lim_{hto 0} lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert \
          = lim_{hto 0} {left( frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lVert hrVertright) } \
          =lim_{hto 0} {frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lim_{hto 0}lVert hrVert}\
          =lVert f'(a)rVertcdot0\
          =0$$



          $a$ is a vector from $mathbb{R^2}$ and $f'(a)$ is a linear mapping from $mathbb{R^2}to mathbb{R}$.



          The second statement can be disproven by your counterexample.
          The function



          $$f(x,y)= |x| + |y| $$



          is continous, but at $(0,0)$ we have



          $$ lim_{(h,0)to 0} frac{f(h,0)-f(0,0)}{h}= lim_{hto 0}frac{|h|}{h}=begin{cases}-1, h uparrow 0 \ +1, h downarrow 0 end{cases} $$
          so this limit depends on how you approach $(0,0)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The first statement can be proved in a way you already drafted using the total derivate
          $$lim_{hto 0} lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert \
          = lim_{hto 0} {left( frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lVert hrVertright) } \
          =lim_{hto 0} {frac {lVert f(a+h)-f(a)rVert}{lVert hrVert}cdot lim_{hto 0}lVert hrVert}\
          =lVert f'(a)rVertcdot0\
          =0$$



          $a$ is a vector from $mathbb{R^2}$ and $f'(a)$ is a linear mapping from $mathbb{R^2}to mathbb{R}$.



          The second statement can be disproven by your counterexample.
          The function



          $$f(x,y)= |x| + |y| $$



          is continous, but at $(0,0)$ we have



          $$ lim_{(h,0)to 0} frac{f(h,0)-f(0,0)}{h}= lim_{hto 0}frac{|h|}{h}=begin{cases}-1, h uparrow 0 \ +1, h downarrow 0 end{cases} $$
          so this limit depends on how you approach $(0,0)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 22 '17 at 23:14

























          answered Jul 19 '17 at 21:27









          miracle173miracle173

          7,33322247




          7,33322247























              2












              $begingroup$

              For a function $f : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, from $U to mathbb{R}^m$, where $U subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ is open), we say that $f$ is differentiable at $mathbf{x} in mathbb{R}^2$ if there exists some linear mapping $A : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ such that
              $$lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x}) - A(mathbf{h})}{||mathbf{h}||} = 0,$$ or equivalently
              $$f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) = f(mathbf{x}) + A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h}),$$
              where $o(mathbf{h})$ is a function that satisfies $lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| = 0$. When $A$ exists, we denote it $f'(mathbf{x})$ or $D_f(mathbf{x})$. [See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derivative#Total_derivative.2C_total_differential_and_Jacobian_matrix for further details.]



              (To illustrate why we cannot just use
              $$text{The derivative of $f$ at $mathbf{x}$ is $f'(mathbf{x}) = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x})}{||mathbf{h}||}$ when the limit exists,}$$ consider the the function $f((x,y)) = x$. Then $f((x,y) + (u, v)) = x + u = f((x, y)) + (1,0)cdot(u,v)$, so is (as expected) differentiable. However, $lim_{u to 0} (f((x,y)+(u,0)) - f((x,y)))/||(u,0)|| = lim_{u to 0} u/|u|$, which does not exists.)



              We can however use the second definition to prove that a function differentiable at a point is also continuous at that point.



              1) We have
              $$0 leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |f((a,b) + mathbf{h}) - f((a, b))| = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h})| leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} (||A|| + 1)||mathbf{h}|| = 0,$$
              where the inequality is deduced from $|A(mathbf{h})| leq ||A||||mathbf{h}||$ and from $o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| to 0$, which implies eventually $|o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}||| leq 1 implies |o(mathbf{h})| leq ||mathbf{h}||$. Hence, we must have equality, and therefore $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$.



              2) The proof given by @miracle173 is correct, but instead because differentiability in $mathbb{R}^2$ implies the existence of directional/partial derivatives. Note also that $f((x,y))=|x|$ would have sufficed.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                For a function $f : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, from $U to mathbb{R}^m$, where $U subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ is open), we say that $f$ is differentiable at $mathbf{x} in mathbb{R}^2$ if there exists some linear mapping $A : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ such that
                $$lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x}) - A(mathbf{h})}{||mathbf{h}||} = 0,$$ or equivalently
                $$f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) = f(mathbf{x}) + A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h}),$$
                where $o(mathbf{h})$ is a function that satisfies $lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| = 0$. When $A$ exists, we denote it $f'(mathbf{x})$ or $D_f(mathbf{x})$. [See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derivative#Total_derivative.2C_total_differential_and_Jacobian_matrix for further details.]



                (To illustrate why we cannot just use
                $$text{The derivative of $f$ at $mathbf{x}$ is $f'(mathbf{x}) = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x})}{||mathbf{h}||}$ when the limit exists,}$$ consider the the function $f((x,y)) = x$. Then $f((x,y) + (u, v)) = x + u = f((x, y)) + (1,0)cdot(u,v)$, so is (as expected) differentiable. However, $lim_{u to 0} (f((x,y)+(u,0)) - f((x,y)))/||(u,0)|| = lim_{u to 0} u/|u|$, which does not exists.)



                We can however use the second definition to prove that a function differentiable at a point is also continuous at that point.



                1) We have
                $$0 leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |f((a,b) + mathbf{h}) - f((a, b))| = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h})| leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} (||A|| + 1)||mathbf{h}|| = 0,$$
                where the inequality is deduced from $|A(mathbf{h})| leq ||A||||mathbf{h}||$ and from $o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| to 0$, which implies eventually $|o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}||| leq 1 implies |o(mathbf{h})| leq ||mathbf{h}||$. Hence, we must have equality, and therefore $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$.



                2) The proof given by @miracle173 is correct, but instead because differentiability in $mathbb{R}^2$ implies the existence of directional/partial derivatives. Note also that $f((x,y))=|x|$ would have sufficed.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  For a function $f : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, from $U to mathbb{R}^m$, where $U subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ is open), we say that $f$ is differentiable at $mathbf{x} in mathbb{R}^2$ if there exists some linear mapping $A : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ such that
                  $$lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x}) - A(mathbf{h})}{||mathbf{h}||} = 0,$$ or equivalently
                  $$f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) = f(mathbf{x}) + A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h}),$$
                  where $o(mathbf{h})$ is a function that satisfies $lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| = 0$. When $A$ exists, we denote it $f'(mathbf{x})$ or $D_f(mathbf{x})$. [See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derivative#Total_derivative.2C_total_differential_and_Jacobian_matrix for further details.]



                  (To illustrate why we cannot just use
                  $$text{The derivative of $f$ at $mathbf{x}$ is $f'(mathbf{x}) = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x})}{||mathbf{h}||}$ when the limit exists,}$$ consider the the function $f((x,y)) = x$. Then $f((x,y) + (u, v)) = x + u = f((x, y)) + (1,0)cdot(u,v)$, so is (as expected) differentiable. However, $lim_{u to 0} (f((x,y)+(u,0)) - f((x,y)))/||(u,0)|| = lim_{u to 0} u/|u|$, which does not exists.)



                  We can however use the second definition to prove that a function differentiable at a point is also continuous at that point.



                  1) We have
                  $$0 leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |f((a,b) + mathbf{h}) - f((a, b))| = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h})| leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} (||A|| + 1)||mathbf{h}|| = 0,$$
                  where the inequality is deduced from $|A(mathbf{h})| leq ||A||||mathbf{h}||$ and from $o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| to 0$, which implies eventually $|o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}||| leq 1 implies |o(mathbf{h})| leq ||mathbf{h}||$. Hence, we must have equality, and therefore $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$.



                  2) The proof given by @miracle173 is correct, but instead because differentiability in $mathbb{R}^2$ implies the existence of directional/partial derivatives. Note also that $f((x,y))=|x|$ would have sufficed.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  For a function $f : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, from $U to mathbb{R}^m$, where $U subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ is open), we say that $f$ is differentiable at $mathbf{x} in mathbb{R}^2$ if there exists some linear mapping $A : mathbb{R}^2 to mathbb{R}$ such that
                  $$lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x}) - A(mathbf{h})}{||mathbf{h}||} = 0,$$ or equivalently
                  $$f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) = f(mathbf{x}) + A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h}),$$
                  where $o(mathbf{h})$ is a function that satisfies $lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| = 0$. When $A$ exists, we denote it $f'(mathbf{x})$ or $D_f(mathbf{x})$. [See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derivative#Total_derivative.2C_total_differential_and_Jacobian_matrix for further details.]



                  (To illustrate why we cannot just use
                  $$text{The derivative of $f$ at $mathbf{x}$ is $f'(mathbf{x}) = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} frac{f(mathbf{x} + mathbf{h}) - f(mathbf{x})}{||mathbf{h}||}$ when the limit exists,}$$ consider the the function $f((x,y)) = x$. Then $f((x,y) + (u, v)) = x + u = f((x, y)) + (1,0)cdot(u,v)$, so is (as expected) differentiable. However, $lim_{u to 0} (f((x,y)+(u,0)) - f((x,y)))/||(u,0)|| = lim_{u to 0} u/|u|$, which does not exists.)



                  We can however use the second definition to prove that a function differentiable at a point is also continuous at that point.



                  1) We have
                  $$0 leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |f((a,b) + mathbf{h}) - f((a, b))| = lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} |A(mathbf{h}) + o(mathbf{h})| leq lim_{mathbf{h} to mathbf{0}} (||A|| + 1)||mathbf{h}|| = 0,$$
                  where the inequality is deduced from $|A(mathbf{h})| leq ||A||||mathbf{h}||$ and from $o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}|| to 0$, which implies eventually $|o(mathbf{h})/||mathbf{h}||| leq 1 implies |o(mathbf{h})| leq ||mathbf{h}||$. Hence, we must have equality, and therefore $f$ is continuous at $(a,b)$.



                  2) The proof given by @miracle173 is correct, but instead because differentiability in $mathbb{R}^2$ implies the existence of directional/partial derivatives. Note also that $f((x,y))=|x|$ would have sufficed.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Dec 15 '18 at 2:09

























                  answered Jul 20 '17 at 11:26









                  A. S.A. S.

                  883




                  883






























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