intuition expectation adapted processes












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Let $X=(X_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of independent identically distributed random variables satisfying $mathbb{E}X_1^2=1$. Let $mathbb{F}=(mathcal{F}_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ the filtration generated by X. (Or $mathcal{F}_n=sigma(X_1,X_2,dots,X_n)$.)



Why is $mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=1$?



If it follows from independence of $X_n$ and $mathcal{F}_{n-1}$, what is the intuition behind it? Or does it follow from the fact that $X$ is iid? I would like a detailed answer so I can really understand what is happening here and be able to recognise similar situations in the future.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $X=(X_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of independent identically distributed random variables satisfying $mathbb{E}X_1^2=1$. Let $mathbb{F}=(mathcal{F}_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ the filtration generated by X. (Or $mathcal{F}_n=sigma(X_1,X_2,dots,X_n)$.)



    Why is $mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=1$?



    If it follows from independence of $X_n$ and $mathcal{F}_{n-1}$, what is the intuition behind it? Or does it follow from the fact that $X$ is iid? I would like a detailed answer so I can really understand what is happening here and be able to recognise similar situations in the future.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $X=(X_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of independent identically distributed random variables satisfying $mathbb{E}X_1^2=1$. Let $mathbb{F}=(mathcal{F}_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ the filtration generated by X. (Or $mathcal{F}_n=sigma(X_1,X_2,dots,X_n)$.)



      Why is $mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=1$?



      If it follows from independence of $X_n$ and $mathcal{F}_{n-1}$, what is the intuition behind it? Or does it follow from the fact that $X$ is iid? I would like a detailed answer so I can really understand what is happening here and be able to recognise similar situations in the future.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $X=(X_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of independent identically distributed random variables satisfying $mathbb{E}X_1^2=1$. Let $mathbb{F}=(mathcal{F}_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ the filtration generated by X. (Or $mathcal{F}_n=sigma(X_1,X_2,dots,X_n)$.)



      Why is $mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=1$?



      If it follows from independence of $X_n$ and $mathcal{F}_{n-1}$, what is the intuition behind it? Or does it follow from the fact that $X$ is iid? I would like a detailed answer so I can really understand what is happening here and be able to recognise similar situations in the future.







      probability-theory conditional-expectation






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      asked Dec 23 '18 at 14:11









      Lou95Lou95

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      659






















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          $begingroup$

          It follows from independence.



          If $X$ and $Y$ are random variables then we can go searching for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ (also denoted as $mathbb E[Xmid sigma(Y)]$) which is a random variable that is characterized by:





          • $Z$ is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$.


          • $mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EZmathbf1_A$ for every $Ainsigma(Y)$


          The first bullet can be restated as: $Z=f(Y)$ for some Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$.



          The second bullet implies that $mathbb EXg(Y)=mathbb EZg(Y)$ for every Borel-measurable function $g$.



          In the special case where $X$ and $Y$ are independent we can take for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ the constant function that is prescribed by: $omegamapstomathbb EX$.



          As a constant function of course it is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$ (so the first bullet is satisfied).



          Concerning the second bullet note that in this case $X$ and $mathbf1_A$ are independent so that: $$mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EXcdotmathbb Emathbf1_A=mathbb E[[mathbb EX]mathbf1_A]$$



          So in your case we get:$$mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=mathbb{E}[X_n^2]=1$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











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            1 Answer
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            active

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            1












            $begingroup$

            It follows from independence.



            If $X$ and $Y$ are random variables then we can go searching for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ (also denoted as $mathbb E[Xmid sigma(Y)]$) which is a random variable that is characterized by:





            • $Z$ is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$.


            • $mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EZmathbf1_A$ for every $Ainsigma(Y)$


            The first bullet can be restated as: $Z=f(Y)$ for some Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$.



            The second bullet implies that $mathbb EXg(Y)=mathbb EZg(Y)$ for every Borel-measurable function $g$.



            In the special case where $X$ and $Y$ are independent we can take for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ the constant function that is prescribed by: $omegamapstomathbb EX$.



            As a constant function of course it is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$ (so the first bullet is satisfied).



            Concerning the second bullet note that in this case $X$ and $mathbf1_A$ are independent so that: $$mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EXcdotmathbb Emathbf1_A=mathbb E[[mathbb EX]mathbf1_A]$$



            So in your case we get:$$mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=mathbb{E}[X_n^2]=1$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              It follows from independence.



              If $X$ and $Y$ are random variables then we can go searching for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ (also denoted as $mathbb E[Xmid sigma(Y)]$) which is a random variable that is characterized by:





              • $Z$ is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$.


              • $mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EZmathbf1_A$ for every $Ainsigma(Y)$


              The first bullet can be restated as: $Z=f(Y)$ for some Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$.



              The second bullet implies that $mathbb EXg(Y)=mathbb EZg(Y)$ for every Borel-measurable function $g$.



              In the special case where $X$ and $Y$ are independent we can take for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ the constant function that is prescribed by: $omegamapstomathbb EX$.



              As a constant function of course it is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$ (so the first bullet is satisfied).



              Concerning the second bullet note that in this case $X$ and $mathbf1_A$ are independent so that: $$mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EXcdotmathbb Emathbf1_A=mathbb E[[mathbb EX]mathbf1_A]$$



              So in your case we get:$$mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=mathbb{E}[X_n^2]=1$$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                It follows from independence.



                If $X$ and $Y$ are random variables then we can go searching for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ (also denoted as $mathbb E[Xmid sigma(Y)]$) which is a random variable that is characterized by:





                • $Z$ is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$.


                • $mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EZmathbf1_A$ for every $Ainsigma(Y)$


                The first bullet can be restated as: $Z=f(Y)$ for some Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$.



                The second bullet implies that $mathbb EXg(Y)=mathbb EZg(Y)$ for every Borel-measurable function $g$.



                In the special case where $X$ and $Y$ are independent we can take for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ the constant function that is prescribed by: $omegamapstomathbb EX$.



                As a constant function of course it is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$ (so the first bullet is satisfied).



                Concerning the second bullet note that in this case $X$ and $mathbf1_A$ are independent so that: $$mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EXcdotmathbb Emathbf1_A=mathbb E[[mathbb EX]mathbf1_A]$$



                So in your case we get:$$mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=mathbb{E}[X_n^2]=1$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                It follows from independence.



                If $X$ and $Y$ are random variables then we can go searching for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ (also denoted as $mathbb E[Xmid sigma(Y)]$) which is a random variable that is characterized by:





                • $Z$ is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$.


                • $mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EZmathbf1_A$ for every $Ainsigma(Y)$


                The first bullet can be restated as: $Z=f(Y)$ for some Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$.



                The second bullet implies that $mathbb EXg(Y)=mathbb EZg(Y)$ for every Borel-measurable function $g$.



                In the special case where $X$ and $Y$ are independent we can take for $Z=mathbb E[Xmid Y]$ the constant function that is prescribed by: $omegamapstomathbb EX$.



                As a constant function of course it is measurable wrt $sigma(Y)$ (so the first bullet is satisfied).



                Concerning the second bullet note that in this case $X$ and $mathbf1_A$ are independent so that: $$mathbb EXmathbf1_A=mathbb EXcdotmathbb Emathbf1_A=mathbb E[[mathbb EX]mathbf1_A]$$



                So in your case we get:$$mathbb{E}[X_n^2|mathcal{F}_{n-1}]=mathbb{E}[X_n^2]=1$$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Dec 23 '18 at 19:33

























                answered Dec 23 '18 at 14:29









                drhabdrhab

                101k544130




                101k544130






























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