irreducible smooth proper one-dimensional $mathbb{Z}$-schemes












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Is there an irreducible smooth proper one-dimensional $mathbb{Z}$-scheme not isomorphic to projective line?










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    $begingroup$
    Do you mean relative dimension 1 or really dimension 1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Roland
    Jan 5 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Roland lets say the structure morphism has relative dimension 1
    $endgroup$
    – Aknazar Kazhymurat
    Jan 6 at 4:39
















3












$begingroup$


Is there an irreducible smooth proper one-dimensional $mathbb{Z}$-scheme not isomorphic to projective line?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Do you mean relative dimension 1 or really dimension 1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Roland
    Jan 5 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Roland lets say the structure morphism has relative dimension 1
    $endgroup$
    – Aknazar Kazhymurat
    Jan 6 at 4:39














3












3








3


1



$begingroup$


Is there an irreducible smooth proper one-dimensional $mathbb{Z}$-scheme not isomorphic to projective line?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Is there an irreducible smooth proper one-dimensional $mathbb{Z}$-scheme not isomorphic to projective line?







algebraic-geometry






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asked Jan 5 at 17:57









Aknazar KazhymuratAknazar Kazhymurat

1534




1534








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Do you mean relative dimension 1 or really dimension 1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Roland
    Jan 5 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Roland lets say the structure morphism has relative dimension 1
    $endgroup$
    – Aknazar Kazhymurat
    Jan 6 at 4:39














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Do you mean relative dimension 1 or really dimension 1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Roland
    Jan 5 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Roland lets say the structure morphism has relative dimension 1
    $endgroup$
    – Aknazar Kazhymurat
    Jan 6 at 4:39








2




2




$begingroup$
Do you mean relative dimension 1 or really dimension 1 ?
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 5 at 19:46




$begingroup$
Do you mean relative dimension 1 or really dimension 1 ?
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 5 at 19:46












$begingroup$
@Roland lets say the structure morphism has relative dimension 1
$endgroup$
– Aknazar Kazhymurat
Jan 6 at 4:39




$begingroup$
@Roland lets say the structure morphism has relative dimension 1
$endgroup$
– Aknazar Kazhymurat
Jan 6 at 4:39










1 Answer
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The answer is no.



Let $X$ be an irreducible scheme and let $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z} = S$ be a smooth proper morphism of schemes. Let $Xto Tto S$ be the Stein factorization of $Xto S$. Note that $T$ is irreducible and that $Tto S$ is smooth proper and finite. It follows from Hermite-Minkowski's theorem that $T =S$ (as $mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$ is simply connected). Thus, $Xto S$ has geometrically connected fibres. Let $C := X_{mathbb{Q}}$ be the generic fibre of $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$. Then $C$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve over $mathbb{Q}$ with good reduction everywhere. In particular, its Jacobian $Jac(C)$ has good reduction everywhere. By the theorem of Abrashkin-Fontaine (see https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2FBF01388584) it follows that $Jac(C_{mathbb{Q}})=0$, so that $C_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve of genus zero. I leave it to you to conclude that $C_{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Q}}$ and that $X = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Z}}$. (Hint: use that $X(mathbb{F}_p)$ is non-empty for every $p$.)






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    $begingroup$

    The answer is no.



    Let $X$ be an irreducible scheme and let $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z} = S$ be a smooth proper morphism of schemes. Let $Xto Tto S$ be the Stein factorization of $Xto S$. Note that $T$ is irreducible and that $Tto S$ is smooth proper and finite. It follows from Hermite-Minkowski's theorem that $T =S$ (as $mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$ is simply connected). Thus, $Xto S$ has geometrically connected fibres. Let $C := X_{mathbb{Q}}$ be the generic fibre of $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$. Then $C$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve over $mathbb{Q}$ with good reduction everywhere. In particular, its Jacobian $Jac(C)$ has good reduction everywhere. By the theorem of Abrashkin-Fontaine (see https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2FBF01388584) it follows that $Jac(C_{mathbb{Q}})=0$, so that $C_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve of genus zero. I leave it to you to conclude that $C_{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Q}}$ and that $X = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Z}}$. (Hint: use that $X(mathbb{F}_p)$ is non-empty for every $p$.)






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      $begingroup$

      The answer is no.



      Let $X$ be an irreducible scheme and let $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z} = S$ be a smooth proper morphism of schemes. Let $Xto Tto S$ be the Stein factorization of $Xto S$. Note that $T$ is irreducible and that $Tto S$ is smooth proper and finite. It follows from Hermite-Minkowski's theorem that $T =S$ (as $mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$ is simply connected). Thus, $Xto S$ has geometrically connected fibres. Let $C := X_{mathbb{Q}}$ be the generic fibre of $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$. Then $C$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve over $mathbb{Q}$ with good reduction everywhere. In particular, its Jacobian $Jac(C)$ has good reduction everywhere. By the theorem of Abrashkin-Fontaine (see https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2FBF01388584) it follows that $Jac(C_{mathbb{Q}})=0$, so that $C_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve of genus zero. I leave it to you to conclude that $C_{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Q}}$ and that $X = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Z}}$. (Hint: use that $X(mathbb{F}_p)$ is non-empty for every $p$.)






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        The answer is no.



        Let $X$ be an irreducible scheme and let $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z} = S$ be a smooth proper morphism of schemes. Let $Xto Tto S$ be the Stein factorization of $Xto S$. Note that $T$ is irreducible and that $Tto S$ is smooth proper and finite. It follows from Hermite-Minkowski's theorem that $T =S$ (as $mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$ is simply connected). Thus, $Xto S$ has geometrically connected fibres. Let $C := X_{mathbb{Q}}$ be the generic fibre of $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$. Then $C$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve over $mathbb{Q}$ with good reduction everywhere. In particular, its Jacobian $Jac(C)$ has good reduction everywhere. By the theorem of Abrashkin-Fontaine (see https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2FBF01388584) it follows that $Jac(C_{mathbb{Q}})=0$, so that $C_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve of genus zero. I leave it to you to conclude that $C_{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Q}}$ and that $X = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Z}}$. (Hint: use that $X(mathbb{F}_p)$ is non-empty for every $p$.)






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The answer is no.



        Let $X$ be an irreducible scheme and let $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z} = S$ be a smooth proper morphism of schemes. Let $Xto Tto S$ be the Stein factorization of $Xto S$. Note that $T$ is irreducible and that $Tto S$ is smooth proper and finite. It follows from Hermite-Minkowski's theorem that $T =S$ (as $mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$ is simply connected). Thus, $Xto S$ has geometrically connected fibres. Let $C := X_{mathbb{Q}}$ be the generic fibre of $Xto mathrm{Spec} mathbb{Z}$. Then $C$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve over $mathbb{Q}$ with good reduction everywhere. In particular, its Jacobian $Jac(C)$ has good reduction everywhere. By the theorem of Abrashkin-Fontaine (see https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2FBF01388584) it follows that $Jac(C_{mathbb{Q}})=0$, so that $C_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a smooth proper geometrically connected curve of genus zero. I leave it to you to conclude that $C_{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Q}}$ and that $X = mathbb{P}^1_{mathbb{Z}}$. (Hint: use that $X(mathbb{F}_p)$ is non-empty for every $p$.)







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        answered Jan 8 at 13:58









        Ariyan JavanpeykarAriyan Javanpeykar

        1,317912




        1,317912






























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