Prove that, $nexists$ functions $f,g:Bbb{R}toBbb{R}$ such that $f(g(x))=x^{2018}$ and $g(f(x))=x^{2019}$.
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I have tried a little bit to solve the problem which goes as follows-
My intuition says $f(g(x))=x^{2018}$ and $g(f(x))=x^{2019}$, then it will violate the well-definedness of function.
Note that, $f(g(f(x)))=f(x)^{2018}implies f(x^{2019})=f(x)^{2018}$
Similarly, $g(x^{2018})=g(x)^{2019}$
Putting $x=1$ in $f(x^{2019})=f(x)^{2018}$ we get, $f(1)=f(1)^{2018}implies f(1)=0,1$
Similarly, putting $x=1$ in $g(x^{2018})=g(x)^{2019}$ we get, $g(1)=g(1)^{2019}implies g(1)=0,1,-1$
Now, I can't proceed further. Can anybody solve it? Thanks for assistance in advance.
real-analysis calculus functions
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have tried a little bit to solve the problem which goes as follows-
My intuition says $f(g(x))=x^{2018}$ and $g(f(x))=x^{2019}$, then it will violate the well-definedness of function.
Note that, $f(g(f(x)))=f(x)^{2018}implies f(x^{2019})=f(x)^{2018}$
Similarly, $g(x^{2018})=g(x)^{2019}$
Putting $x=1$ in $f(x^{2019})=f(x)^{2018}$ we get, $f(1)=f(1)^{2018}implies f(1)=0,1$
Similarly, putting $x=1$ in $g(x^{2018})=g(x)^{2019}$ we get, $g(1)=g(1)^{2019}implies g(1)=0,1,-1$
Now, I can't proceed further. Can anybody solve it? Thanks for assistance in advance.
real-analysis calculus functions
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
From where is the question?
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 6 at 16:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have tried a little bit to solve the problem which goes as follows-
My intuition says $f(g(x))=x^{2018}$ and $g(f(x))=x^{2019}$, then it will violate the well-definedness of function.
Note that, $f(g(f(x)))=f(x)^{2018}implies f(x^{2019})=f(x)^{2018}$
Similarly, $g(x^{2018})=g(x)^{2019}$
Putting $x=1$ in $f(x^{2019})=f(x)^{2018}$ we get, $f(1)=f(1)^{2018}implies f(1)=0,1$
Similarly, putting $x=1$ in $g(x^{2018})=g(x)^{2019}$ we get, $g(1)=g(1)^{2019}implies g(1)=0,1,-1$
Now, I can't proceed further. Can anybody solve it? Thanks for assistance in advance.
real-analysis calculus functions
$endgroup$
I have tried a little bit to solve the problem which goes as follows-
My intuition says $f(g(x))=x^{2018}$ and $g(f(x))=x^{2019}$, then it will violate the well-definedness of function.
Note that, $f(g(f(x)))=f(x)^{2018}implies f(x^{2019})=f(x)^{2018}$
Similarly, $g(x^{2018})=g(x)^{2019}$
Putting $x=1$ in $f(x^{2019})=f(x)^{2018}$ we get, $f(1)=f(1)^{2018}implies f(1)=0,1$
Similarly, putting $x=1$ in $g(x^{2018})=g(x)^{2019}$ we get, $g(1)=g(1)^{2019}implies g(1)=0,1,-1$
Now, I can't proceed further. Can anybody solve it? Thanks for assistance in advance.
real-analysis calculus functions
real-analysis calculus functions
asked Jan 6 at 16:33
Biswarup SahaBiswarup Saha
624110
624110
2
$begingroup$
From where is the question?
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 6 at 16:40
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
From where is the question?
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 6 at 16:40
2
2
$begingroup$
From where is the question?
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 6 at 16:40
$begingroup$
From where is the question?
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 6 at 16:40
add a comment |
2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Here is a simple proof (to avoid confusion I will write $f^{y}(x)$ instead of $f(x)^{y}$):
Suppose that there are two such functions $f,g$ as in your question.
Note that $forallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}$, we have $f(i^{2019}) = f(i) = f^{2018}(i)$ and thus $label{*}tag{*} f(i) in {0, 1} quadforallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}.$
On the other hand, since $g(f(x)) = x^{2019} spaceforall xinmathbb{R}$,
$g(f(1)) = 1$,
$g(f(0)) = 0$,
$g(f(-1)) = -1$.
This is impossible since $f$ (and thus also $gcirc f$) only takes two (or fewer) values on ${-1, 0, 1}$ after ref{*}. $LongrightarrowLongleftarrowquadsquare$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another classic trick that can be used here is that there is a bijection between the set of fixed points of $fg$ and fixed points of $gf$. If $x$ is such that $f(g(x))=x$ then $g(f(g(x)))=g(x)$ so $g(x)$ is a fixed point of $gf$. Similarly whenever $y$ is a fixed point of $gf$, we can show that $f(y)$ is a fixed point of $fg$. Convince yourself that on the sets of fixed points, this gives a bijection.
Can you see why the $fg$ and $gf$ you've been given fail this condition?
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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active
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active
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votes
$begingroup$
Here is a simple proof (to avoid confusion I will write $f^{y}(x)$ instead of $f(x)^{y}$):
Suppose that there are two such functions $f,g$ as in your question.
Note that $forallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}$, we have $f(i^{2019}) = f(i) = f^{2018}(i)$ and thus $label{*}tag{*} f(i) in {0, 1} quadforallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}.$
On the other hand, since $g(f(x)) = x^{2019} spaceforall xinmathbb{R}$,
$g(f(1)) = 1$,
$g(f(0)) = 0$,
$g(f(-1)) = -1$.
This is impossible since $f$ (and thus also $gcirc f$) only takes two (or fewer) values on ${-1, 0, 1}$ after ref{*}. $LongrightarrowLongleftarrowquadsquare$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is a simple proof (to avoid confusion I will write $f^{y}(x)$ instead of $f(x)^{y}$):
Suppose that there are two such functions $f,g$ as in your question.
Note that $forallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}$, we have $f(i^{2019}) = f(i) = f^{2018}(i)$ and thus $label{*}tag{*} f(i) in {0, 1} quadforallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}.$
On the other hand, since $g(f(x)) = x^{2019} spaceforall xinmathbb{R}$,
$g(f(1)) = 1$,
$g(f(0)) = 0$,
$g(f(-1)) = -1$.
This is impossible since $f$ (and thus also $gcirc f$) only takes two (or fewer) values on ${-1, 0, 1}$ after ref{*}. $LongrightarrowLongleftarrowquadsquare$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is a simple proof (to avoid confusion I will write $f^{y}(x)$ instead of $f(x)^{y}$):
Suppose that there are two such functions $f,g$ as in your question.
Note that $forallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}$, we have $f(i^{2019}) = f(i) = f^{2018}(i)$ and thus $label{*}tag{*} f(i) in {0, 1} quadforallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}.$
On the other hand, since $g(f(x)) = x^{2019} spaceforall xinmathbb{R}$,
$g(f(1)) = 1$,
$g(f(0)) = 0$,
$g(f(-1)) = -1$.
This is impossible since $f$ (and thus also $gcirc f$) only takes two (or fewer) values on ${-1, 0, 1}$ after ref{*}. $LongrightarrowLongleftarrowquadsquare$
$endgroup$
Here is a simple proof (to avoid confusion I will write $f^{y}(x)$ instead of $f(x)^{y}$):
Suppose that there are two such functions $f,g$ as in your question.
Note that $forallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}$, we have $f(i^{2019}) = f(i) = f^{2018}(i)$ and thus $label{*}tag{*} f(i) in {0, 1} quadforallspace i in{-1, 0, 1}.$
On the other hand, since $g(f(x)) = x^{2019} spaceforall xinmathbb{R}$,
$g(f(1)) = 1$,
$g(f(0)) = 0$,
$g(f(-1)) = -1$.
This is impossible since $f$ (and thus also $gcirc f$) only takes two (or fewer) values on ${-1, 0, 1}$ after ref{*}. $LongrightarrowLongleftarrowquadsquare$
edited Jan 8 at 9:41
answered Jan 6 at 22:35
Maximilian JanischMaximilian Janisch
45612
45612
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Another classic trick that can be used here is that there is a bijection between the set of fixed points of $fg$ and fixed points of $gf$. If $x$ is such that $f(g(x))=x$ then $g(f(g(x)))=g(x)$ so $g(x)$ is a fixed point of $gf$. Similarly whenever $y$ is a fixed point of $gf$, we can show that $f(y)$ is a fixed point of $fg$. Convince yourself that on the sets of fixed points, this gives a bijection.
Can you see why the $fg$ and $gf$ you've been given fail this condition?
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another classic trick that can be used here is that there is a bijection between the set of fixed points of $fg$ and fixed points of $gf$. If $x$ is such that $f(g(x))=x$ then $g(f(g(x)))=g(x)$ so $g(x)$ is a fixed point of $gf$. Similarly whenever $y$ is a fixed point of $gf$, we can show that $f(y)$ is a fixed point of $fg$. Convince yourself that on the sets of fixed points, this gives a bijection.
Can you see why the $fg$ and $gf$ you've been given fail this condition?
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another classic trick that can be used here is that there is a bijection between the set of fixed points of $fg$ and fixed points of $gf$. If $x$ is such that $f(g(x))=x$ then $g(f(g(x)))=g(x)$ so $g(x)$ is a fixed point of $gf$. Similarly whenever $y$ is a fixed point of $gf$, we can show that $f(y)$ is a fixed point of $fg$. Convince yourself that on the sets of fixed points, this gives a bijection.
Can you see why the $fg$ and $gf$ you've been given fail this condition?
$endgroup$
Another classic trick that can be used here is that there is a bijection between the set of fixed points of $fg$ and fixed points of $gf$. If $x$ is such that $f(g(x))=x$ then $g(f(g(x)))=g(x)$ so $g(x)$ is a fixed point of $gf$. Similarly whenever $y$ is a fixed point of $gf$, we can show that $f(y)$ is a fixed point of $fg$. Convince yourself that on the sets of fixed points, this gives a bijection.
Can you see why the $fg$ and $gf$ you've been given fail this condition?
answered Jan 6 at 19:20
ChessanatorChessanator
2,2061412
2,2061412
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$begingroup$
From where is the question?
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 6 at 16:40