How to Calculate the flux of the Vector Field on the surface $z = 1-x^2-y^2$ ( getting normal vector...
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Let $S$ be the surface $z = 1-x^2-y^2 , 0leq z$.
Find $int_{S} x^2z~dydz + y^2z~dzdx + (x^2+y^2)~dxdy$.
Choose the direction of the normal upwards.
so i calculated the flux and i got that it is $boxed{frac{pi}{2}}$. i am not sure if that is right
Parametrization $R(theta,r) = (rcos(theta),rsin(theta),1-r^2)$
and the normal is $(2r^2cos(theta),2r^2sin(theta),r)$ i feel like its not right but i calculated it many times at the point $(0,0,1) ~ r = 0$ but the normal is $(0,0,0)$
$int_{S}vec{F} _dot{} vec{n}$ = $int_{theta = 0}^{theta = 2pi}int_{r=0}^{r=1}~~(2r^4-2r^6)(sin^3{theta}+cos^3{theta}) + r^3~~drdtheta$
multivariable-calculus vector-analysis surface-integrals
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $S$ be the surface $z = 1-x^2-y^2 , 0leq z$.
Find $int_{S} x^2z~dydz + y^2z~dzdx + (x^2+y^2)~dxdy$.
Choose the direction of the normal upwards.
so i calculated the flux and i got that it is $boxed{frac{pi}{2}}$. i am not sure if that is right
Parametrization $R(theta,r) = (rcos(theta),rsin(theta),1-r^2)$
and the normal is $(2r^2cos(theta),2r^2sin(theta),r)$ i feel like its not right but i calculated it many times at the point $(0,0,1) ~ r = 0$ but the normal is $(0,0,0)$
$int_{S}vec{F} _dot{} vec{n}$ = $int_{theta = 0}^{theta = 2pi}int_{r=0}^{r=1}~~(2r^4-2r^6)(sin^3{theta}+cos^3{theta}) + r^3~~drdtheta$
multivariable-calculus vector-analysis surface-integrals
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
anyone ? i need help , i feel like the normal is Wrong at the point (0,0,1) i get the normal vector (0,0,0)
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 15 at 22:47
1
$begingroup$
Your calculations and the result are correct. The magnitude of the normal vector is zero when $r = 0$, but the $x$ and $y$ components are infinitesimals of higher order for small $r$, so the vector is approximately vertical and pointing upwards, and the unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 4:30
$begingroup$
But without parametrizing the normal is $(0,0,1)$ and with it is (0,0,0) why ?
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 16 at 7:40
1
$begingroup$
The unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$. The unit normal is $(2 r cos theta, 2 r sin theta, 1)/sqrt{1 + 4 r^2}$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 8:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $S$ be the surface $z = 1-x^2-y^2 , 0leq z$.
Find $int_{S} x^2z~dydz + y^2z~dzdx + (x^2+y^2)~dxdy$.
Choose the direction of the normal upwards.
so i calculated the flux and i got that it is $boxed{frac{pi}{2}}$. i am not sure if that is right
Parametrization $R(theta,r) = (rcos(theta),rsin(theta),1-r^2)$
and the normal is $(2r^2cos(theta),2r^2sin(theta),r)$ i feel like its not right but i calculated it many times at the point $(0,0,1) ~ r = 0$ but the normal is $(0,0,0)$
$int_{S}vec{F} _dot{} vec{n}$ = $int_{theta = 0}^{theta = 2pi}int_{r=0}^{r=1}~~(2r^4-2r^6)(sin^3{theta}+cos^3{theta}) + r^3~~drdtheta$
multivariable-calculus vector-analysis surface-integrals
$endgroup$
Let $S$ be the surface $z = 1-x^2-y^2 , 0leq z$.
Find $int_{S} x^2z~dydz + y^2z~dzdx + (x^2+y^2)~dxdy$.
Choose the direction of the normal upwards.
so i calculated the flux and i got that it is $boxed{frac{pi}{2}}$. i am not sure if that is right
Parametrization $R(theta,r) = (rcos(theta),rsin(theta),1-r^2)$
and the normal is $(2r^2cos(theta),2r^2sin(theta),r)$ i feel like its not right but i calculated it many times at the point $(0,0,1) ~ r = 0$ but the normal is $(0,0,0)$
$int_{S}vec{F} _dot{} vec{n}$ = $int_{theta = 0}^{theta = 2pi}int_{r=0}^{r=1}~~(2r^4-2r^6)(sin^3{theta}+cos^3{theta}) + r^3~~drdtheta$
multivariable-calculus vector-analysis surface-integrals
multivariable-calculus vector-analysis surface-integrals
edited Jan 15 at 22:48
Mather
asked Jan 15 at 21:35
Mather Mather
4088
4088
$begingroup$
anyone ? i need help , i feel like the normal is Wrong at the point (0,0,1) i get the normal vector (0,0,0)
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 15 at 22:47
1
$begingroup$
Your calculations and the result are correct. The magnitude of the normal vector is zero when $r = 0$, but the $x$ and $y$ components are infinitesimals of higher order for small $r$, so the vector is approximately vertical and pointing upwards, and the unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 4:30
$begingroup$
But without parametrizing the normal is $(0,0,1)$ and with it is (0,0,0) why ?
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 16 at 7:40
1
$begingroup$
The unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$. The unit normal is $(2 r cos theta, 2 r sin theta, 1)/sqrt{1 + 4 r^2}$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 8:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
anyone ? i need help , i feel like the normal is Wrong at the point (0,0,1) i get the normal vector (0,0,0)
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 15 at 22:47
1
$begingroup$
Your calculations and the result are correct. The magnitude of the normal vector is zero when $r = 0$, but the $x$ and $y$ components are infinitesimals of higher order for small $r$, so the vector is approximately vertical and pointing upwards, and the unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 4:30
$begingroup$
But without parametrizing the normal is $(0,0,1)$ and with it is (0,0,0) why ?
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 16 at 7:40
1
$begingroup$
The unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$. The unit normal is $(2 r cos theta, 2 r sin theta, 1)/sqrt{1 + 4 r^2}$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 8:04
$begingroup$
anyone ? i need help , i feel like the normal is Wrong at the point (0,0,1) i get the normal vector (0,0,0)
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 15 at 22:47
$begingroup$
anyone ? i need help , i feel like the normal is Wrong at the point (0,0,1) i get the normal vector (0,0,0)
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 15 at 22:47
1
1
$begingroup$
Your calculations and the result are correct. The magnitude of the normal vector is zero when $r = 0$, but the $x$ and $y$ components are infinitesimals of higher order for small $r$, so the vector is approximately vertical and pointing upwards, and the unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 4:30
$begingroup$
Your calculations and the result are correct. The magnitude of the normal vector is zero when $r = 0$, but the $x$ and $y$ components are infinitesimals of higher order for small $r$, so the vector is approximately vertical and pointing upwards, and the unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 4:30
$begingroup$
But without parametrizing the normal is $(0,0,1)$ and with it is (0,0,0) why ?
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 16 at 7:40
$begingroup$
But without parametrizing the normal is $(0,0,1)$ and with it is (0,0,0) why ?
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 16 at 7:40
1
1
$begingroup$
The unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$. The unit normal is $(2 r cos theta, 2 r sin theta, 1)/sqrt{1 + 4 r^2}$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 8:04
$begingroup$
The unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$. The unit normal is $(2 r cos theta, 2 r sin theta, 1)/sqrt{1 + 4 r^2}$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 8:04
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
anyone ? i need help , i feel like the normal is Wrong at the point (0,0,1) i get the normal vector (0,0,0)
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 15 at 22:47
1
$begingroup$
Your calculations and the result are correct. The magnitude of the normal vector is zero when $r = 0$, but the $x$ and $y$ components are infinitesimals of higher order for small $r$, so the vector is approximately vertical and pointing upwards, and the unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 4:30
$begingroup$
But without parametrizing the normal is $(0,0,1)$ and with it is (0,0,0) why ?
$endgroup$
– Mather
Jan 16 at 7:40
1
$begingroup$
The unit normal is close to $(0, 0, 1)$. The unit normal is $(2 r cos theta, 2 r sin theta, 1)/sqrt{1 + 4 r^2}$.
$endgroup$
– Maxim
Jan 16 at 8:04