Radius of convergence of power series $sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$
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Radius of convergence of power series $sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$.
I applied ratio test, it went inconclusive and in root test i got $|x|^n n!^{1/n}$ but $n!^{1/n} $ diverges as n gets bigger.
So please help me to proceed
real-analysis sequences-and-series power-series
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Radius of convergence of power series $sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$.
I applied ratio test, it went inconclusive and in root test i got $|x|^n n!^{1/n}$ but $n!^{1/n} $ diverges as n gets bigger.
So please help me to proceed
real-analysis sequences-and-series power-series
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I realize there is already an accepted answer, but just a a note: the ratio test is not inconclusive. Here we have $$a_n = n! x^{n^2}$$ and so $$lvert a_{n+1}/a_n rvert = (n+1) lvert x rvert ^{2n+1} = (n+1) e^{(2n+1)log(lvert x rvert)}.$$ Now if $lvert x rvert < 1$, so that $log(lvert x vert) < 0$, then this is a decaying exponential and the limit is zero as $n to infty$. If $ lvert x rvert ge 1$, then this limit is $+infty$. Hence the ratio test tells us that we have convergence iff $lvert x rvert < 1$.
$endgroup$
– User8128
Jan 11 at 16:29
$begingroup$
@User8128 thanks
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 17:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Radius of convergence of power series $sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$.
I applied ratio test, it went inconclusive and in root test i got $|x|^n n!^{1/n}$ but $n!^{1/n} $ diverges as n gets bigger.
So please help me to proceed
real-analysis sequences-and-series power-series
$endgroup$
Radius of convergence of power series $sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$.
I applied ratio test, it went inconclusive and in root test i got $|x|^n n!^{1/n}$ but $n!^{1/n} $ diverges as n gets bigger.
So please help me to proceed
real-analysis sequences-and-series power-series
real-analysis sequences-and-series power-series
asked Jan 11 at 3:56
Cloud JRCloud JR
920518
920518
$begingroup$
I realize there is already an accepted answer, but just a a note: the ratio test is not inconclusive. Here we have $$a_n = n! x^{n^2}$$ and so $$lvert a_{n+1}/a_n rvert = (n+1) lvert x rvert ^{2n+1} = (n+1) e^{(2n+1)log(lvert x rvert)}.$$ Now if $lvert x rvert < 1$, so that $log(lvert x vert) < 0$, then this is a decaying exponential and the limit is zero as $n to infty$. If $ lvert x rvert ge 1$, then this limit is $+infty$. Hence the ratio test tells us that we have convergence iff $lvert x rvert < 1$.
$endgroup$
– User8128
Jan 11 at 16:29
$begingroup$
@User8128 thanks
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 17:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I realize there is already an accepted answer, but just a a note: the ratio test is not inconclusive. Here we have $$a_n = n! x^{n^2}$$ and so $$lvert a_{n+1}/a_n rvert = (n+1) lvert x rvert ^{2n+1} = (n+1) e^{(2n+1)log(lvert x rvert)}.$$ Now if $lvert x rvert < 1$, so that $log(lvert x vert) < 0$, then this is a decaying exponential and the limit is zero as $n to infty$. If $ lvert x rvert ge 1$, then this limit is $+infty$. Hence the ratio test tells us that we have convergence iff $lvert x rvert < 1$.
$endgroup$
– User8128
Jan 11 at 16:29
$begingroup$
@User8128 thanks
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 17:15
$begingroup$
I realize there is already an accepted answer, but just a a note: the ratio test is not inconclusive. Here we have $$a_n = n! x^{n^2}$$ and so $$lvert a_{n+1}/a_n rvert = (n+1) lvert x rvert ^{2n+1} = (n+1) e^{(2n+1)log(lvert x rvert)}.$$ Now if $lvert x rvert < 1$, so that $log(lvert x vert) < 0$, then this is a decaying exponential and the limit is zero as $n to infty$. If $ lvert x rvert ge 1$, then this limit is $+infty$. Hence the ratio test tells us that we have convergence iff $lvert x rvert < 1$.
$endgroup$
– User8128
Jan 11 at 16:29
$begingroup$
I realize there is already an accepted answer, but just a a note: the ratio test is not inconclusive. Here we have $$a_n = n! x^{n^2}$$ and so $$lvert a_{n+1}/a_n rvert = (n+1) lvert x rvert ^{2n+1} = (n+1) e^{(2n+1)log(lvert x rvert)}.$$ Now if $lvert x rvert < 1$, so that $log(lvert x vert) < 0$, then this is a decaying exponential and the limit is zero as $n to infty$. If $ lvert x rvert ge 1$, then this limit is $+infty$. Hence the ratio test tells us that we have convergence iff $lvert x rvert < 1$.
$endgroup$
– User8128
Jan 11 at 16:29
$begingroup$
@User8128 thanks
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 17:15
$begingroup$
@User8128 thanks
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 17:15
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
HINT:
Note that we have
$$ limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{left| n!x^{n^2}right|}=limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{1/n}|x|^n$$
Now use Stirling' s Formula
$$n!sim sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^n$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger??
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:59
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 15:56
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No, but $$n!=left(sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^nright),left(1+O(1/n)right)$$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 16:00
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idk who downvote but i accept yours !
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 16:22
$begingroup$
Much appreciated!!
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 18:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The power series is $sum_0^infty a_m x^m$ where
$$
a_m = begin{cases}
n!, & m = n^2, n in mathbb N^*\
0, & text{otherwise},
end{cases}
$$
so by Hadamard formula,
$$
1/R =varlimsup |a_m|^{1/m} = varlimsup (n!)^{1/n^2} =varlimsup (sqrt{2pi} n^{n+1/2} mathrm e^{-n})^{1/n^2} = lim (2pi)^{1/2n^2} n^{1/n} n^{1/2n^2}mathrm e^{-1/n} = 1,
$$
where we use the Stirling approximation. Hence the radius of convergence is $1$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Nothing wrong with using Stirling's formula, but more simply, for $nge 1 $ we have $1le(n!)^{1/n^2}le (n^n)^{1/n^2}=n^{1/n} to 1$ as $ ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 11 at 6:04
1
$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet Thanks for this trick!
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 6:06
$begingroup$
@xbh does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger?? also is it valid to take$1/n^2$ th root of x... please explain
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:58
$begingroup$
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Hadamard_theorem. its not mentioned in hereto take 1/n^2 root , im confused.
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 14:04
1
$begingroup$
@CloudJR I think my answer has said everything you need. The given series is a power series that a lot of terms lost, and $(n!)^{1/n}$ is not correct.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 14:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your formula is wrong because the exponent of $x$ is $n^2,$ but you can use the Weak form of Stirling’s Formula
begin{align} dfrac{n^n}{e^{n-1}}<n!<dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} . end{align}
This implies that
begin{align} sum^{infty}_{n=0} n!{x^{n^2}}leq sum^{infty}_{n=0} dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} {x^{n^2}}. end{align}
So, fix $xin Bbb{R},$ then by D'Alembert's ratio test
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{(n+1)^2-n^2}}right|\&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{2n+1}}right|\&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}. end{align}
CASE I: $|x|<1$
Since $|x|<1$, then ${left|xright|}^{2n}to 0$, and so, there exists $Nin Bbb{N}$ such that
begin{align} {left|xright|}^{2n}<dfrac{1}{n^2},forall;ngeq N .end{align}
Thus,
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}leq dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, left(dfrac{1}{n^2}right)=0<1. end{align}
Hence, the series converges when $|x|<1.$
CASE II: $|x|geq 1$
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}n!{x^{n^2}}=infty end{align}
which implies that the series cannot not converge. Consequently, the radius of convergence is $1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
HINT:
Note that we have
$$ limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{left| n!x^{n^2}right|}=limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{1/n}|x|^n$$
Now use Stirling' s Formula
$$n!sim sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^n$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger??
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:59
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 15:56
$begingroup$
No, but $$n!=left(sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^nright),left(1+O(1/n)right)$$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 16:00
$begingroup$
idk who downvote but i accept yours !
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 16:22
$begingroup$
Much appreciated!!
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 18:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
HINT:
Note that we have
$$ limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{left| n!x^{n^2}right|}=limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{1/n}|x|^n$$
Now use Stirling' s Formula
$$n!sim sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^n$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger??
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:59
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 15:56
$begingroup$
No, but $$n!=left(sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^nright),left(1+O(1/n)right)$$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 16:00
$begingroup$
idk who downvote but i accept yours !
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 16:22
$begingroup$
Much appreciated!!
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 18:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
HINT:
Note that we have
$$ limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{left| n!x^{n^2}right|}=limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{1/n}|x|^n$$
Now use Stirling' s Formula
$$n!sim sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^n$$
$endgroup$
HINT:
Note that we have
$$ limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{left| n!x^{n^2}right|}=limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{1/n}|x|^n$$
Now use Stirling' s Formula
$$n!sim sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^n$$
answered Jan 11 at 4:24
Mark ViolaMark Viola
134k1278177
134k1278177
$begingroup$
does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger??
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:59
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 15:56
$begingroup$
No, but $$n!=left(sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^nright),left(1+O(1/n)right)$$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 16:00
$begingroup$
idk who downvote but i accept yours !
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 16:22
$begingroup$
Much appreciated!!
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 18:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger??
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:59
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 15:56
$begingroup$
No, but $$n!=left(sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^nright),left(1+O(1/n)right)$$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 16:00
$begingroup$
idk who downvote but i accept yours !
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 16:22
$begingroup$
Much appreciated!!
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 18:05
$begingroup$
does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger??
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:59
$begingroup$
does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger??
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:59
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 15:56
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 15:56
$begingroup$
No, but $$n!=left(sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^nright),left(1+O(1/n)right)$$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 16:00
$begingroup$
No, but $$n!=left(sqrt{2pi n}left( frac ne right)^nright),left(1+O(1/n)right)$$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 16:00
$begingroup$
idk who downvote but i accept yours !
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 16:22
$begingroup$
idk who downvote but i accept yours !
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 16:22
$begingroup$
Much appreciated!!
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 18:05
$begingroup$
Much appreciated!!
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 11 at 18:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The power series is $sum_0^infty a_m x^m$ where
$$
a_m = begin{cases}
n!, & m = n^2, n in mathbb N^*\
0, & text{otherwise},
end{cases}
$$
so by Hadamard formula,
$$
1/R =varlimsup |a_m|^{1/m} = varlimsup (n!)^{1/n^2} =varlimsup (sqrt{2pi} n^{n+1/2} mathrm e^{-n})^{1/n^2} = lim (2pi)^{1/2n^2} n^{1/n} n^{1/2n^2}mathrm e^{-1/n} = 1,
$$
where we use the Stirling approximation. Hence the radius of convergence is $1$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Nothing wrong with using Stirling's formula, but more simply, for $nge 1 $ we have $1le(n!)^{1/n^2}le (n^n)^{1/n^2}=n^{1/n} to 1$ as $ ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 11 at 6:04
1
$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet Thanks for this trick!
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 6:06
$begingroup$
@xbh does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger?? also is it valid to take$1/n^2$ th root of x... please explain
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:58
$begingroup$
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Hadamard_theorem. its not mentioned in hereto take 1/n^2 root , im confused.
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 14:04
1
$begingroup$
@CloudJR I think my answer has said everything you need. The given series is a power series that a lot of terms lost, and $(n!)^{1/n}$ is not correct.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 14:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The power series is $sum_0^infty a_m x^m$ where
$$
a_m = begin{cases}
n!, & m = n^2, n in mathbb N^*\
0, & text{otherwise},
end{cases}
$$
so by Hadamard formula,
$$
1/R =varlimsup |a_m|^{1/m} = varlimsup (n!)^{1/n^2} =varlimsup (sqrt{2pi} n^{n+1/2} mathrm e^{-n})^{1/n^2} = lim (2pi)^{1/2n^2} n^{1/n} n^{1/2n^2}mathrm e^{-1/n} = 1,
$$
where we use the Stirling approximation. Hence the radius of convergence is $1$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Nothing wrong with using Stirling's formula, but more simply, for $nge 1 $ we have $1le(n!)^{1/n^2}le (n^n)^{1/n^2}=n^{1/n} to 1$ as $ ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 11 at 6:04
1
$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet Thanks for this trick!
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 6:06
$begingroup$
@xbh does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger?? also is it valid to take$1/n^2$ th root of x... please explain
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:58
$begingroup$
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Hadamard_theorem. its not mentioned in hereto take 1/n^2 root , im confused.
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 14:04
1
$begingroup$
@CloudJR I think my answer has said everything you need. The given series is a power series that a lot of terms lost, and $(n!)^{1/n}$ is not correct.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 14:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The power series is $sum_0^infty a_m x^m$ where
$$
a_m = begin{cases}
n!, & m = n^2, n in mathbb N^*\
0, & text{otherwise},
end{cases}
$$
so by Hadamard formula,
$$
1/R =varlimsup |a_m|^{1/m} = varlimsup (n!)^{1/n^2} =varlimsup (sqrt{2pi} n^{n+1/2} mathrm e^{-n})^{1/n^2} = lim (2pi)^{1/2n^2} n^{1/n} n^{1/2n^2}mathrm e^{-1/n} = 1,
$$
where we use the Stirling approximation. Hence the radius of convergence is $1$.
$endgroup$
The power series is $sum_0^infty a_m x^m$ where
$$
a_m = begin{cases}
n!, & m = n^2, n in mathbb N^*\
0, & text{otherwise},
end{cases}
$$
so by Hadamard formula,
$$
1/R =varlimsup |a_m|^{1/m} = varlimsup (n!)^{1/n^2} =varlimsup (sqrt{2pi} n^{n+1/2} mathrm e^{-n})^{1/n^2} = lim (2pi)^{1/2n^2} n^{1/n} n^{1/2n^2}mathrm e^{-1/n} = 1,
$$
where we use the Stirling approximation. Hence the radius of convergence is $1$.
answered Jan 11 at 5:49
xbhxbh
6,3201522
6,3201522
1
$begingroup$
Nothing wrong with using Stirling's formula, but more simply, for $nge 1 $ we have $1le(n!)^{1/n^2}le (n^n)^{1/n^2}=n^{1/n} to 1$ as $ ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 11 at 6:04
1
$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet Thanks for this trick!
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 6:06
$begingroup$
@xbh does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger?? also is it valid to take$1/n^2$ th root of x... please explain
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:58
$begingroup$
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Hadamard_theorem. its not mentioned in hereto take 1/n^2 root , im confused.
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 14:04
1
$begingroup$
@CloudJR I think my answer has said everything you need. The given series is a power series that a lot of terms lost, and $(n!)^{1/n}$ is not correct.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 14:41
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Nothing wrong with using Stirling's formula, but more simply, for $nge 1 $ we have $1le(n!)^{1/n^2}le (n^n)^{1/n^2}=n^{1/n} to 1$ as $ ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 11 at 6:04
1
$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet Thanks for this trick!
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 6:06
$begingroup$
@xbh does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger?? also is it valid to take$1/n^2$ th root of x... please explain
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:58
$begingroup$
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Hadamard_theorem. its not mentioned in hereto take 1/n^2 root , im confused.
$endgroup$
– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 14:04
1
$begingroup$
@CloudJR I think my answer has said everything you need. The given series is a power series that a lot of terms lost, and $(n!)^{1/n}$ is not correct.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 14:41
1
1
$begingroup$
Nothing wrong with using Stirling's formula, but more simply, for $nge 1 $ we have $1le(n!)^{1/n^2}le (n^n)^{1/n^2}=n^{1/n} to 1$ as $ ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 11 at 6:04
$begingroup$
Nothing wrong with using Stirling's formula, but more simply, for $nge 1 $ we have $1le(n!)^{1/n^2}le (n^n)^{1/n^2}=n^{1/n} to 1$ as $ ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 11 at 6:04
1
1
$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet Thanks for this trick!
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 6:06
$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet Thanks for this trick!
$endgroup$
– xbh
Jan 11 at 6:06
$begingroup$
@xbh does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger?? also is it valid to take$1/n^2$ th root of x... please explain
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– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:58
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@xbh does error in stirling approximation tends to 0 as n gets bigger?? also is it valid to take$1/n^2$ th root of x... please explain
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– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 13:58
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en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Hadamard_theorem. its not mentioned in hereto take 1/n^2 root , im confused.
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– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 14:04
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en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Hadamard_theorem. its not mentioned in hereto take 1/n^2 root , im confused.
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– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 14:04
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@CloudJR I think my answer has said everything you need. The given series is a power series that a lot of terms lost, and $(n!)^{1/n}$ is not correct.
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– xbh
Jan 11 at 14:41
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@CloudJR I think my answer has said everything you need. The given series is a power series that a lot of terms lost, and $(n!)^{1/n}$ is not correct.
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– xbh
Jan 11 at 14:41
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Your formula is wrong because the exponent of $x$ is $n^2,$ but you can use the Weak form of Stirling’s Formula
begin{align} dfrac{n^n}{e^{n-1}}<n!<dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} . end{align}
This implies that
begin{align} sum^{infty}_{n=0} n!{x^{n^2}}leq sum^{infty}_{n=0} dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} {x^{n^2}}. end{align}
So, fix $xin Bbb{R},$ then by D'Alembert's ratio test
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{(n+1)^2-n^2}}right|\&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{2n+1}}right|\&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}. end{align}
CASE I: $|x|<1$
Since $|x|<1$, then ${left|xright|}^{2n}to 0$, and so, there exists $Nin Bbb{N}$ such that
begin{align} {left|xright|}^{2n}<dfrac{1}{n^2},forall;ngeq N .end{align}
Thus,
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}leq dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, left(dfrac{1}{n^2}right)=0<1. end{align}
Hence, the series converges when $|x|<1.$
CASE II: $|x|geq 1$
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}n!{x^{n^2}}=infty end{align}
which implies that the series cannot not converge. Consequently, the radius of convergence is $1$.
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add a comment |
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Your formula is wrong because the exponent of $x$ is $n^2,$ but you can use the Weak form of Stirling’s Formula
begin{align} dfrac{n^n}{e^{n-1}}<n!<dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} . end{align}
This implies that
begin{align} sum^{infty}_{n=0} n!{x^{n^2}}leq sum^{infty}_{n=0} dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} {x^{n^2}}. end{align}
So, fix $xin Bbb{R},$ then by D'Alembert's ratio test
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{(n+1)^2-n^2}}right|\&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{2n+1}}right|\&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}. end{align}
CASE I: $|x|<1$
Since $|x|<1$, then ${left|xright|}^{2n}to 0$, and so, there exists $Nin Bbb{N}$ such that
begin{align} {left|xright|}^{2n}<dfrac{1}{n^2},forall;ngeq N .end{align}
Thus,
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}leq dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, left(dfrac{1}{n^2}right)=0<1. end{align}
Hence, the series converges when $|x|<1.$
CASE II: $|x|geq 1$
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}n!{x^{n^2}}=infty end{align}
which implies that the series cannot not converge. Consequently, the radius of convergence is $1$.
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add a comment |
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Your formula is wrong because the exponent of $x$ is $n^2,$ but you can use the Weak form of Stirling’s Formula
begin{align} dfrac{n^n}{e^{n-1}}<n!<dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} . end{align}
This implies that
begin{align} sum^{infty}_{n=0} n!{x^{n^2}}leq sum^{infty}_{n=0} dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} {x^{n^2}}. end{align}
So, fix $xin Bbb{R},$ then by D'Alembert's ratio test
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{(n+1)^2-n^2}}right|\&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{2n+1}}right|\&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}. end{align}
CASE I: $|x|<1$
Since $|x|<1$, then ${left|xright|}^{2n}to 0$, and so, there exists $Nin Bbb{N}$ such that
begin{align} {left|xright|}^{2n}<dfrac{1}{n^2},forall;ngeq N .end{align}
Thus,
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}leq dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, left(dfrac{1}{n^2}right)=0<1. end{align}
Hence, the series converges when $|x|<1.$
CASE II: $|x|geq 1$
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}n!{x^{n^2}}=infty end{align}
which implies that the series cannot not converge. Consequently, the radius of convergence is $1$.
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Your formula is wrong because the exponent of $x$ is $n^2,$ but you can use the Weak form of Stirling’s Formula
begin{align} dfrac{n^n}{e^{n-1}}<n!<dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} . end{align}
This implies that
begin{align} sum^{infty}_{n=0} n!{x^{n^2}}leq sum^{infty}_{n=0} dfrac{n^{n+1}}{e^{n-1}} {x^{n^2}}. end{align}
So, fix $xin Bbb{R},$ then by D'Alembert's ratio test
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{(n+1)^2-n^2}}right|\&=limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n }{e} {x^{2n+1}}right|\&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}. end{align}
CASE I: $|x|<1$
Since $|x|<1$, then ${left|xright|}^{2n}to 0$, and so, there exists $Nin Bbb{N}$ such that
begin{align} {left|xright|}^{2n}<dfrac{1}{n^2},forall;ngeq N .end{align}
Thus,
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}left|dfrac{n^{n+2}{x^{(n+1)^2}}}{e^{n}} dfrac{e^{n-1}} {n^{n+1} x^{n^2}}right|&=dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, {left|xright|}^{2n}leq dfrac{left|x right|}{e} limlimits_{nto infty}n, left(dfrac{1}{n^2}right)=0<1. end{align}
Hence, the series converges when $|x|<1.$
CASE II: $|x|geq 1$
begin{align} limlimits_{nto infty}n!{x^{n^2}}=infty end{align}
which implies that the series cannot not converge. Consequently, the radius of convergence is $1$.
edited Jan 11 at 13:58
answered Jan 11 at 13:51
Omojola MichealOmojola Micheal
2,064424
2,064424
add a comment |
add a comment |
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I realize there is already an accepted answer, but just a a note: the ratio test is not inconclusive. Here we have $$a_n = n! x^{n^2}$$ and so $$lvert a_{n+1}/a_n rvert = (n+1) lvert x rvert ^{2n+1} = (n+1) e^{(2n+1)log(lvert x rvert)}.$$ Now if $lvert x rvert < 1$, so that $log(lvert x vert) < 0$, then this is a decaying exponential and the limit is zero as $n to infty$. If $ lvert x rvert ge 1$, then this limit is $+infty$. Hence the ratio test tells us that we have convergence iff $lvert x rvert < 1$.
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– User8128
Jan 11 at 16:29
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@User8128 thanks
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– Cloud JR
Jan 11 at 17:15