Schwarz inequality in linear algebra and probability theory












1












$begingroup$


Linear algebra states Schwarz inequality as
$$lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvertlelVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVerttag 1$$
However, probability theory states it as
$$(mathbf E[XY])^2lemathbf E[X^2]mathbf E[Y^2]tag 2$$
By comparing $lvertsum_i x_iy_irvertlesqrt{sum_i x_i^2sum_i y_i^2}$ with $lvertsum_ysum_x xyp_{X,Y}(x,y)rvertlesqrt{sum_x x^2p_X(x)sum_y y^2p_Y(y)}$, we see that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)=begin{cases}frac1n&text{if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\0&text{otherwise}end{cases}$. Thus, $(2)$ can be thought of as a more general form of the inequality.



Another way to think about this is to compare $lvertcosthetarvert=frac{lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvert}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}le1$ with $lvertrhorvert=frac{lvertmathbf{cov}(X,Y)rvert}{sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)mathbf{var}(Y)}}le1$. The former is exactly $(1)$, while the latter becomes $(2)$ only when $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$. In some sense, we can view $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ as a special form of $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$. Then, it follows that $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x$ is a form of $mathbf{var}(X)$ and $lVertmathbf xrVert$ is a form of $sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)}$.



What is the special form of $mathbf E[X]$ and how do we understand $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$ in linear algebra? With $p_{X,Y}$ defined above, we have $mathbf E[XY]=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, but $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)nemathbf E[XY]$ unless $mathbf E[X]=0$ or $mathbf E[Y]=0$. How can we obtain a relation between $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$ and $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$?










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Jan 13 at 13:01












  • $begingroup$
    @Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
    $endgroup$
    – W. Zhu
    Jan 14 at 2:59










  • $begingroup$
    Thus, question solved?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Jan 14 at 11:26










  • $begingroup$
    @Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
    $endgroup$
    – W. Zhu
    Jan 14 at 15:07






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Jan 15 at 13:32


















1












$begingroup$


Linear algebra states Schwarz inequality as
$$lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvertlelVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVerttag 1$$
However, probability theory states it as
$$(mathbf E[XY])^2lemathbf E[X^2]mathbf E[Y^2]tag 2$$
By comparing $lvertsum_i x_iy_irvertlesqrt{sum_i x_i^2sum_i y_i^2}$ with $lvertsum_ysum_x xyp_{X,Y}(x,y)rvertlesqrt{sum_x x^2p_X(x)sum_y y^2p_Y(y)}$, we see that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)=begin{cases}frac1n&text{if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\0&text{otherwise}end{cases}$. Thus, $(2)$ can be thought of as a more general form of the inequality.



Another way to think about this is to compare $lvertcosthetarvert=frac{lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvert}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}le1$ with $lvertrhorvert=frac{lvertmathbf{cov}(X,Y)rvert}{sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)mathbf{var}(Y)}}le1$. The former is exactly $(1)$, while the latter becomes $(2)$ only when $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$. In some sense, we can view $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ as a special form of $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$. Then, it follows that $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x$ is a form of $mathbf{var}(X)$ and $lVertmathbf xrVert$ is a form of $sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)}$.



What is the special form of $mathbf E[X]$ and how do we understand $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$ in linear algebra? With $p_{X,Y}$ defined above, we have $mathbf E[XY]=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, but $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)nemathbf E[XY]$ unless $mathbf E[X]=0$ or $mathbf E[Y]=0$. How can we obtain a relation between $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$ and $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Jan 13 at 13:01












  • $begingroup$
    @Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
    $endgroup$
    – W. Zhu
    Jan 14 at 2:59










  • $begingroup$
    Thus, question solved?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Jan 14 at 11:26










  • $begingroup$
    @Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
    $endgroup$
    – W. Zhu
    Jan 14 at 15:07






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Jan 15 at 13:32
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


Linear algebra states Schwarz inequality as
$$lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvertlelVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVerttag 1$$
However, probability theory states it as
$$(mathbf E[XY])^2lemathbf E[X^2]mathbf E[Y^2]tag 2$$
By comparing $lvertsum_i x_iy_irvertlesqrt{sum_i x_i^2sum_i y_i^2}$ with $lvertsum_ysum_x xyp_{X,Y}(x,y)rvertlesqrt{sum_x x^2p_X(x)sum_y y^2p_Y(y)}$, we see that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)=begin{cases}frac1n&text{if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\0&text{otherwise}end{cases}$. Thus, $(2)$ can be thought of as a more general form of the inequality.



Another way to think about this is to compare $lvertcosthetarvert=frac{lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvert}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}le1$ with $lvertrhorvert=frac{lvertmathbf{cov}(X,Y)rvert}{sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)mathbf{var}(Y)}}le1$. The former is exactly $(1)$, while the latter becomes $(2)$ only when $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$. In some sense, we can view $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ as a special form of $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$. Then, it follows that $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x$ is a form of $mathbf{var}(X)$ and $lVertmathbf xrVert$ is a form of $sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)}$.



What is the special form of $mathbf E[X]$ and how do we understand $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$ in linear algebra? With $p_{X,Y}$ defined above, we have $mathbf E[XY]=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, but $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)nemathbf E[XY]$ unless $mathbf E[X]=0$ or $mathbf E[Y]=0$. How can we obtain a relation between $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$ and $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Linear algebra states Schwarz inequality as
$$lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvertlelVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVerttag 1$$
However, probability theory states it as
$$(mathbf E[XY])^2lemathbf E[X^2]mathbf E[Y^2]tag 2$$
By comparing $lvertsum_i x_iy_irvertlesqrt{sum_i x_i^2sum_i y_i^2}$ with $lvertsum_ysum_x xyp_{X,Y}(x,y)rvertlesqrt{sum_x x^2p_X(x)sum_y y^2p_Y(y)}$, we see that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)=begin{cases}frac1n&text{if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\0&text{otherwise}end{cases}$. Thus, $(2)$ can be thought of as a more general form of the inequality.



Another way to think about this is to compare $lvertcosthetarvert=frac{lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvert}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}le1$ with $lvertrhorvert=frac{lvertmathbf{cov}(X,Y)rvert}{sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)mathbf{var}(Y)}}le1$. The former is exactly $(1)$, while the latter becomes $(2)$ only when $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$. In some sense, we can view $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ as a special form of $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$. Then, it follows that $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x$ is a form of $mathbf{var}(X)$ and $lVertmathbf xrVert$ is a form of $sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)}$.



What is the special form of $mathbf E[X]$ and how do we understand $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$ in linear algebra? With $p_{X,Y}$ defined above, we have $mathbf E[XY]=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, but $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)nemathbf E[XY]$ unless $mathbf E[X]=0$ or $mathbf E[Y]=0$. How can we obtain a relation between $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$ and $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$?







linear-algebra probability-theory cauchy-schwarz-inequality






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 15 at 7:50







W. Zhu

















asked Jan 13 at 12:33









W. ZhuW. Zhu

685316




685316








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Jan 13 at 13:01












  • $begingroup$
    @Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
    $endgroup$
    – W. Zhu
    Jan 14 at 2:59










  • $begingroup$
    Thus, question solved?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Jan 14 at 11:26










  • $begingroup$
    @Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
    $endgroup$
    – W. Zhu
    Jan 14 at 15:07






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Jan 15 at 13:32
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Jan 13 at 13:01












  • $begingroup$
    @Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
    $endgroup$
    – W. Zhu
    Jan 14 at 2:59










  • $begingroup$
    Thus, question solved?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Jan 14 at 11:26










  • $begingroup$
    @Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
    $endgroup$
    – W. Zhu
    Jan 14 at 15:07






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Jan 15 at 13:32










1




1




$begingroup$
Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 13 at 13:01






$begingroup$
Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 13 at 13:01














$begingroup$
@Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 2:59




$begingroup$
@Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 2:59












$begingroup$
Thus, question solved?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 14 at 11:26




$begingroup$
Thus, question solved?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 14 at 11:26












$begingroup$
@Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 15:07




$begingroup$
@Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 15:07




1




1




$begingroup$
I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Jan 15 at 13:32






$begingroup$
I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Jan 15 at 13:32












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.



Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.



Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
$$D=
begin{bmatrix}
frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
end{bmatrix}$$



This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).



Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.



Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.



Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:




  1. The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
    yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$
    matches
    $sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.


  2. $(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.

  3. Pythagoras theorem
    $lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
    erVert^2$
    with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
    e=mathbf b-mathbf p$
    matches
    $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
    with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
    $tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
    total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
    E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$
    with
    $hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.






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    $begingroup$

    After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.



    Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.



    Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
    $$D=
    begin{bmatrix}
    frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
    0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
    vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
    0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
    end{bmatrix}$$



    This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).



    Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.



    Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.



    Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:




    1. The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
      yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$
      matches
      $sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.


    2. $(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.

    3. Pythagoras theorem
      $lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
      erVert^2$
      with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
      e=mathbf b-mathbf p$
      matches
      $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
      with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
      $tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
      total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
      E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$
      with
      $hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.



      Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.



      Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
      $$D=
      begin{bmatrix}
      frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
      0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
      vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
      0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
      end{bmatrix}$$



      This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).



      Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.



      Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.



      Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:




      1. The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
        yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$
        matches
        $sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.


      2. $(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.

      3. Pythagoras theorem
        $lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
        erVert^2$
        with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
        e=mathbf b-mathbf p$
        matches
        $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
        with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
        $tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
        total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
        E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$
        with
        $hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.



        Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.



        Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
        $$D=
        begin{bmatrix}
        frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
        0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
        vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
        0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
        end{bmatrix}$$



        This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).



        Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.



        Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.



        Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:




        1. The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
          yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$
          matches
          $sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.


        2. $(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.

        3. Pythagoras theorem
          $lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
          erVert^2$
          with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
          e=mathbf b-mathbf p$
          matches
          $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
          with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
          $tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
          total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
          E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$
          with
          $hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.



        Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.



        Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
        $$D=
        begin{bmatrix}
        frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
        0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
        vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
        0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
        end{bmatrix}$$



        This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).



        Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.



        Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.



        Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:




        1. The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
          yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$
          matches
          $sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.


        2. $(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.

        3. Pythagoras theorem
          $lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
          erVert^2$
          with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
          e=mathbf b-mathbf p$
          matches
          $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
          with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
          $tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
          total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
          E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$
          with
          $hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 16 at 13:20

























        answered Jan 16 at 11:22









        W. ZhuW. Zhu

        685316




        685316






























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