Schwarz inequality in linear algebra and probability theory
$begingroup$
Linear algebra states Schwarz inequality as
$$lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvertlelVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVerttag 1$$
However, probability theory states it as
$$(mathbf E[XY])^2lemathbf E[X^2]mathbf E[Y^2]tag 2$$
By comparing $lvertsum_i x_iy_irvertlesqrt{sum_i x_i^2sum_i y_i^2}$ with $lvertsum_ysum_x xyp_{X,Y}(x,y)rvertlesqrt{sum_x x^2p_X(x)sum_y y^2p_Y(y)}$, we see that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)=begin{cases}frac1n&text{if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\0&text{otherwise}end{cases}$. Thus, $(2)$ can be thought of as a more general form of the inequality.
Another way to think about this is to compare $lvertcosthetarvert=frac{lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvert}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}le1$ with $lvertrhorvert=frac{lvertmathbf{cov}(X,Y)rvert}{sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)mathbf{var}(Y)}}le1$. The former is exactly $(1)$, while the latter becomes $(2)$ only when $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$. In some sense, we can view $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ as a special form of $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$. Then, it follows that $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x$ is a form of $mathbf{var}(X)$ and $lVertmathbf xrVert$ is a form of $sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)}$.
What is the special form of $mathbf E[X]$ and how do we understand $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$ in linear algebra? With $p_{X,Y}$ defined above, we have $mathbf E[XY]=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, but $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)nemathbf E[XY]$ unless $mathbf E[X]=0$ or $mathbf E[Y]=0$. How can we obtain a relation between $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$ and $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$?
linear-algebra probability-theory cauchy-schwarz-inequality
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Linear algebra states Schwarz inequality as
$$lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvertlelVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVerttag 1$$
However, probability theory states it as
$$(mathbf E[XY])^2lemathbf E[X^2]mathbf E[Y^2]tag 2$$
By comparing $lvertsum_i x_iy_irvertlesqrt{sum_i x_i^2sum_i y_i^2}$ with $lvertsum_ysum_x xyp_{X,Y}(x,y)rvertlesqrt{sum_x x^2p_X(x)sum_y y^2p_Y(y)}$, we see that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)=begin{cases}frac1n&text{if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\0&text{otherwise}end{cases}$. Thus, $(2)$ can be thought of as a more general form of the inequality.
Another way to think about this is to compare $lvertcosthetarvert=frac{lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvert}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}le1$ with $lvertrhorvert=frac{lvertmathbf{cov}(X,Y)rvert}{sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)mathbf{var}(Y)}}le1$. The former is exactly $(1)$, while the latter becomes $(2)$ only when $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$. In some sense, we can view $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ as a special form of $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$. Then, it follows that $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x$ is a form of $mathbf{var}(X)$ and $lVertmathbf xrVert$ is a form of $sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)}$.
What is the special form of $mathbf E[X]$ and how do we understand $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$ in linear algebra? With $p_{X,Y}$ defined above, we have $mathbf E[XY]=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, but $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)nemathbf E[XY]$ unless $mathbf E[X]=0$ or $mathbf E[Y]=0$. How can we obtain a relation between $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$ and $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$?
linear-algebra probability-theory cauchy-schwarz-inequality
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 13 at 13:01
$begingroup$
@Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 2:59
$begingroup$
Thus, question solved?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 14 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 15:07
1
$begingroup$
I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Jan 15 at 13:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Linear algebra states Schwarz inequality as
$$lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvertlelVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVerttag 1$$
However, probability theory states it as
$$(mathbf E[XY])^2lemathbf E[X^2]mathbf E[Y^2]tag 2$$
By comparing $lvertsum_i x_iy_irvertlesqrt{sum_i x_i^2sum_i y_i^2}$ with $lvertsum_ysum_x xyp_{X,Y}(x,y)rvertlesqrt{sum_x x^2p_X(x)sum_y y^2p_Y(y)}$, we see that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)=begin{cases}frac1n&text{if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\0&text{otherwise}end{cases}$. Thus, $(2)$ can be thought of as a more general form of the inequality.
Another way to think about this is to compare $lvertcosthetarvert=frac{lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvert}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}le1$ with $lvertrhorvert=frac{lvertmathbf{cov}(X,Y)rvert}{sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)mathbf{var}(Y)}}le1$. The former is exactly $(1)$, while the latter becomes $(2)$ only when $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$. In some sense, we can view $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ as a special form of $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$. Then, it follows that $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x$ is a form of $mathbf{var}(X)$ and $lVertmathbf xrVert$ is a form of $sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)}$.
What is the special form of $mathbf E[X]$ and how do we understand $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$ in linear algebra? With $p_{X,Y}$ defined above, we have $mathbf E[XY]=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, but $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)nemathbf E[XY]$ unless $mathbf E[X]=0$ or $mathbf E[Y]=0$. How can we obtain a relation between $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$ and $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$?
linear-algebra probability-theory cauchy-schwarz-inequality
$endgroup$
Linear algebra states Schwarz inequality as
$$lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvertlelVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVerttag 1$$
However, probability theory states it as
$$(mathbf E[XY])^2lemathbf E[X^2]mathbf E[Y^2]tag 2$$
By comparing $lvertsum_i x_iy_irvertlesqrt{sum_i x_i^2sum_i y_i^2}$ with $lvertsum_ysum_x xyp_{X,Y}(x,y)rvertlesqrt{sum_x x^2p_X(x)sum_y y^2p_Y(y)}$, we see that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)=begin{cases}frac1n&text{if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\0&text{otherwise}end{cases}$. Thus, $(2)$ can be thought of as a more general form of the inequality.
Another way to think about this is to compare $lvertcosthetarvert=frac{lvertmathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf yrvert}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}le1$ with $lvertrhorvert=frac{lvertmathbf{cov}(X,Y)rvert}{sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)mathbf{var}(Y)}}le1$. The former is exactly $(1)$, while the latter becomes $(2)$ only when $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$. In some sense, we can view $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ as a special form of $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$. Then, it follows that $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x$ is a form of $mathbf{var}(X)$ and $lVertmathbf xrVert$ is a form of $sqrt{mathbf{var}(X)}$.
What is the special form of $mathbf E[X]$ and how do we understand $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$ in linear algebra? With $p_{X,Y}$ defined above, we have $mathbf E[XY]=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, but $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)nemathbf E[XY]$ unless $mathbf E[X]=0$ or $mathbf E[Y]=0$. How can we obtain a relation between $mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$ and $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$?
linear-algebra probability-theory cauchy-schwarz-inequality
linear-algebra probability-theory cauchy-schwarz-inequality
edited Jan 15 at 7:50
W. Zhu
asked Jan 13 at 12:33
W. ZhuW. Zhu
685316
685316
1
$begingroup$
Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 13 at 13:01
$begingroup$
@Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 2:59
$begingroup$
Thus, question solved?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 14 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 15:07
1
$begingroup$
I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Jan 15 at 13:32
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 13 at 13:01
$begingroup$
@Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 2:59
$begingroup$
Thus, question solved?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 14 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 15:07
1
$begingroup$
I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Jan 15 at 13:32
1
1
$begingroup$
Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 13 at 13:01
$begingroup$
Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 13 at 13:01
$begingroup$
@Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 2:59
$begingroup$
@Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 2:59
$begingroup$
Thus, question solved?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 14 at 11:26
$begingroup$
Thus, question solved?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 14 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 15:07
$begingroup$
@Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 15:07
1
1
$begingroup$
I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Jan 15 at 13:32
$begingroup$
I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Jan 15 at 13:32
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.
Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.
Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
$$D=
begin{bmatrix}
frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
end{bmatrix}$$
This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).
Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.
Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.
Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:
- The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$ matches
$sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.
$(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.- Pythagoras theorem
$lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
erVert^2$ with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
e=mathbf b-mathbf p$ matches
$mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
$tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$ with
$hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.
Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.
Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
$$D=
begin{bmatrix}
frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
end{bmatrix}$$
This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).
Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.
Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.
Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:
- The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$ matches
$sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.
$(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.- Pythagoras theorem
$lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
erVert^2$ with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
e=mathbf b-mathbf p$ matches
$mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
$tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$ with
$hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.
Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.
Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
$$D=
begin{bmatrix}
frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
end{bmatrix}$$
This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).
Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.
Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.
Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:
- The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$ matches
$sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.
$(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.- Pythagoras theorem
$lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
erVert^2$ with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
e=mathbf b-mathbf p$ matches
$mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
$tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$ with
$hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.
Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.
Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
$$D=
begin{bmatrix}
frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
end{bmatrix}$$
This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).
Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.
Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.
Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:
- The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$ matches
$sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.
$(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.- Pythagoras theorem
$lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
erVert^2$ with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
e=mathbf b-mathbf p$ matches
$mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
$tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$ with
$hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.
$endgroup$
After reading J.G.'s answer and some thinking, I have arrived at a satisfactory answer. I will post my thoughts below.
Let $mathbf xinBbb R^n$ denote a discrete uniform random variable with each component corresoponding to each outcome. Then $mathbf E[mathbf x]$ is the average of the components, and $mathbf E[mathbf x]=0$ means that the components sum to zero. Thus, for zero-mean random variables, we can choose $n-1$ components and set the last component to $-sum_{i=1}^{n-1}x_i$. These vectors form an $n-1$-dimensional subspace. We can bring any vector to this centered subspace $C$ by subtracting from each component the average of all components.
Now we consider two vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ in $C$. We can use a matrix to represent the joint distribution. Put $x_i$'s in the rows and $y_i$'s in the columns, and consider this joint distribution matrix:
$$D=
begin{bmatrix}
frac1n&0&0&cdots&0\
0&frac1n&0&cdots&0\
vdots&vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
0&0&0&cdots&frac1n
end{bmatrix}$$
This distribution is special because it puts equal weights on the diagonal entries and zero weight on the off-diagonal entries. We may call this the discrete uniform diagonal joint distribution. It is easily seen that $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are discrete uniform but not independent ($mathbf x$ being $x_i$ forces $mathbf y$ to be $y_i$).
Under these assumptions, $mathbf{cov}(mathbf x, mathbf y)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}n$, $mathbf{var}(mathbf x)=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x}n$, $sigma_{mathbf x}=frac{lVertmathbf xrVert}{sqrt n}$ and $rho=frac{mathbf{cov}(mathbf x,mathbf y)}{sigma_{mathbf x}sigma_{mathbf y}}=frac{mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y}{lVertmathbf xrVertlVertmathbf yrVert}=costheta$. When $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ are orthogonal vectors, they are uncorrelated random variables. Although they are linearly independent vectors, they are not independent random variables.
Now we have a correspondence between covariance and dot product, standard deviation and length, correlation coefficient and the cosine of the angle between two vectors, and uncorrelatedness and orthogonality. Thus, Schwarz inequality $lvertcosthetarvertle1$ matches $lvertrhorvertle1$.
Let us look at 3 more examples that connect linear algebra to probability theory:
- The triangle inequality $lVertmathbf x+mathbf
yrVertlelVertmathbf xrVert+lVertmathbf yrVert$ matches
$sigma_{X+Y}lesigma_X+sigma_Y$.
$(mathbf x+mathbf y)^mathrm T(mathbf x+mathbf y)=mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf x+mathbf y^mathrm Tmathbf y+2mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$ matches $mathbf{var}(X+Y)=mathbf{var}(X)+mathbf{var}(Y)+2mathbf{cov}(X,Y)$.- Pythagoras theorem
$lVertmathbf brVert^2=lVertmathbf prVert^2+lVertmathbf
erVert^2$ with orthogonal projection $mathbf p$ and error $mathbf
e=mathbf b-mathbf p$ matches
$mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(hatTheta)+mathbf{var}(tildeTheta)$,
with uncorrelated estimator $hatTheta$ and estimation error
$tildeTheta=Theta-hatTheta$. In fact, this is just the law of
total variance $mathbf{var}(Theta)=mathbf{var}(mathbf
E[Theta|X])+mathbf E[mathbf{var}(Theta|X)]$ with
$hatTheta=mathbf E[Theta|X]$.
edited Jan 16 at 13:20
answered Jan 16 at 11:22
W. ZhuW. Zhu
685316
685316
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
Not "the same as", rather "a particular case of" (can you spot how?).
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 13 at 13:01
$begingroup$
@Did The two inequalities are equivalent when $p_{X,Y}(x,y)= begin{cases} frac1n&text{ if $x=x_i$ and $y=y_i$ for $iin{1,2,cdots,n}$}\ 0&text{ otherwise} end{cases}$!
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 2:59
$begingroup$
Thus, question solved?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 14 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@Did I have one more question. If we write $mathbf{cov}(X, Y)$ as $mathbf x^mathrm Tmathbf y$, then $lvertrhorvertle1$ becomes $lvertcosthetarvertle1$. But we need to set $mathbf E[X]=mathbf E[Y]=0$, which means that the components of each of $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$ average to zero. Shouldn't the inequality hold for all vectors $mathbf x$ and $mathbf y$?
$endgroup$
– W. Zhu
Jan 14 at 15:07
1
$begingroup$
I don't understand the downvote, as is often the case when there's no comment accompanying it. Anyway, there's a recent question on the covariance which addresses exactly the doubts of this post.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Jan 15 at 13:32