How do I find if the probability of the sample proportion is greater than something?












1














I have this problem and I have no clue how to solve it.
In 2012, 31% of the adult population in the US had earned a bachelor’s degree or higher. One hundred people are randomly sampled from the population. What is the probability that the
sample proportion p-hat is greater than 0.40?










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    I have this problem and I have no clue how to solve it.
    In 2012, 31% of the adult population in the US had earned a bachelor’s degree or higher. One hundred people are randomly sampled from the population. What is the probability that the
    sample proportion p-hat is greater than 0.40?










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      1







      I have this problem and I have no clue how to solve it.
      In 2012, 31% of the adult population in the US had earned a bachelor’s degree or higher. One hundred people are randomly sampled from the population. What is the probability that the
      sample proportion p-hat is greater than 0.40?










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      I have this problem and I have no clue how to solve it.
      In 2012, 31% of the adult population in the US had earned a bachelor’s degree or higher. One hundred people are randomly sampled from the population. What is the probability that the
      sample proportion p-hat is greater than 0.40?







      statistics probability-distributions






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      asked Mar 22 '14 at 21:36









      Lily H

      8124




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          2 Answers
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          The mean of $hat{p}$ is equal to p, which is 0.31, and the standard deviation of $hat{p}$ is:



          $$sqrt{p(1-p)/n} = (0.31*0.69/100)^{1/2} = 0.0462$$



          So



          $$P(hat{p} > 0.4) = P(z > (0.4 - 0.31)/0.0462)$$



          $$= P(z > 1.948) = 1 - P(z < 1.948) = 1 - .9744 = .0256$$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I know this might sound dumb, but what does the z stand for?
            – Lily H
            Mar 22 '14 at 22:09










          • @LilyH: z is the standard-normal variable with mean = 0, and standard deviation = 1.
            – DeepSea
            Mar 22 '14 at 22:11












          • how do you know you can use $z$?
            – BCLC
            Jul 9 '16 at 7:54










          • Because the Binomial distribution (especially when divided by $n$) looks quite Normally distributed. So it makes for a good approximation.
            – knrumsey
            Mar 1 '17 at 19:28



















          0














          DeepSea's answer is a pretty standard way to do this. But it's important to remember, that treating $hat p$ as Normally distributed is an approximation (albeit a quite good one most of the time).



          If you wanted to have a more "exact" answer, you could use the Binomial distribution.



          Let $Y$ be the number of people in the sample who have earned a Bachelors or higher. Then $Y sim Binom(100, 0.31)$ and $hat P = frac{Y}{n}$. Therefore:



          begin{equation}
          P(hat p > .40) = P(Y > 40) = 1 - F_Y(40) = 0.0218
          end{equation}



          Notice that DeepSea's answer gives a good approximation. But this is answer is more "exact".






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            0














            The mean of $hat{p}$ is equal to p, which is 0.31, and the standard deviation of $hat{p}$ is:



            $$sqrt{p(1-p)/n} = (0.31*0.69/100)^{1/2} = 0.0462$$



            So



            $$P(hat{p} > 0.4) = P(z > (0.4 - 0.31)/0.0462)$$



            $$= P(z > 1.948) = 1 - P(z < 1.948) = 1 - .9744 = .0256$$






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • I know this might sound dumb, but what does the z stand for?
              – Lily H
              Mar 22 '14 at 22:09










            • @LilyH: z is the standard-normal variable with mean = 0, and standard deviation = 1.
              – DeepSea
              Mar 22 '14 at 22:11












            • how do you know you can use $z$?
              – BCLC
              Jul 9 '16 at 7:54










            • Because the Binomial distribution (especially when divided by $n$) looks quite Normally distributed. So it makes for a good approximation.
              – knrumsey
              Mar 1 '17 at 19:28
















            0














            The mean of $hat{p}$ is equal to p, which is 0.31, and the standard deviation of $hat{p}$ is:



            $$sqrt{p(1-p)/n} = (0.31*0.69/100)^{1/2} = 0.0462$$



            So



            $$P(hat{p} > 0.4) = P(z > (0.4 - 0.31)/0.0462)$$



            $$= P(z > 1.948) = 1 - P(z < 1.948) = 1 - .9744 = .0256$$






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • I know this might sound dumb, but what does the z stand for?
              – Lily H
              Mar 22 '14 at 22:09










            • @LilyH: z is the standard-normal variable with mean = 0, and standard deviation = 1.
              – DeepSea
              Mar 22 '14 at 22:11












            • how do you know you can use $z$?
              – BCLC
              Jul 9 '16 at 7:54










            • Because the Binomial distribution (especially when divided by $n$) looks quite Normally distributed. So it makes for a good approximation.
              – knrumsey
              Mar 1 '17 at 19:28














            0












            0








            0






            The mean of $hat{p}$ is equal to p, which is 0.31, and the standard deviation of $hat{p}$ is:



            $$sqrt{p(1-p)/n} = (0.31*0.69/100)^{1/2} = 0.0462$$



            So



            $$P(hat{p} > 0.4) = P(z > (0.4 - 0.31)/0.0462)$$



            $$= P(z > 1.948) = 1 - P(z < 1.948) = 1 - .9744 = .0256$$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            The mean of $hat{p}$ is equal to p, which is 0.31, and the standard deviation of $hat{p}$ is:



            $$sqrt{p(1-p)/n} = (0.31*0.69/100)^{1/2} = 0.0462$$



            So



            $$P(hat{p} > 0.4) = P(z > (0.4 - 0.31)/0.0462)$$



            $$= P(z > 1.948) = 1 - P(z < 1.948) = 1 - .9744 = .0256$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jul 9 '16 at 7:56









            BCLC

            1




            1










            answered Mar 22 '14 at 21:59









            DeepSea

            70.9k54487




            70.9k54487












            • I know this might sound dumb, but what does the z stand for?
              – Lily H
              Mar 22 '14 at 22:09










            • @LilyH: z is the standard-normal variable with mean = 0, and standard deviation = 1.
              – DeepSea
              Mar 22 '14 at 22:11












            • how do you know you can use $z$?
              – BCLC
              Jul 9 '16 at 7:54










            • Because the Binomial distribution (especially when divided by $n$) looks quite Normally distributed. So it makes for a good approximation.
              – knrumsey
              Mar 1 '17 at 19:28


















            • I know this might sound dumb, but what does the z stand for?
              – Lily H
              Mar 22 '14 at 22:09










            • @LilyH: z is the standard-normal variable with mean = 0, and standard deviation = 1.
              – DeepSea
              Mar 22 '14 at 22:11












            • how do you know you can use $z$?
              – BCLC
              Jul 9 '16 at 7:54










            • Because the Binomial distribution (especially when divided by $n$) looks quite Normally distributed. So it makes for a good approximation.
              – knrumsey
              Mar 1 '17 at 19:28
















            I know this might sound dumb, but what does the z stand for?
            – Lily H
            Mar 22 '14 at 22:09




            I know this might sound dumb, but what does the z stand for?
            – Lily H
            Mar 22 '14 at 22:09












            @LilyH: z is the standard-normal variable with mean = 0, and standard deviation = 1.
            – DeepSea
            Mar 22 '14 at 22:11






            @LilyH: z is the standard-normal variable with mean = 0, and standard deviation = 1.
            – DeepSea
            Mar 22 '14 at 22:11














            how do you know you can use $z$?
            – BCLC
            Jul 9 '16 at 7:54




            how do you know you can use $z$?
            – BCLC
            Jul 9 '16 at 7:54












            Because the Binomial distribution (especially when divided by $n$) looks quite Normally distributed. So it makes for a good approximation.
            – knrumsey
            Mar 1 '17 at 19:28




            Because the Binomial distribution (especially when divided by $n$) looks quite Normally distributed. So it makes for a good approximation.
            – knrumsey
            Mar 1 '17 at 19:28











            0














            DeepSea's answer is a pretty standard way to do this. But it's important to remember, that treating $hat p$ as Normally distributed is an approximation (albeit a quite good one most of the time).



            If you wanted to have a more "exact" answer, you could use the Binomial distribution.



            Let $Y$ be the number of people in the sample who have earned a Bachelors or higher. Then $Y sim Binom(100, 0.31)$ and $hat P = frac{Y}{n}$. Therefore:



            begin{equation}
            P(hat p > .40) = P(Y > 40) = 1 - F_Y(40) = 0.0218
            end{equation}



            Notice that DeepSea's answer gives a good approximation. But this is answer is more "exact".






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              0














              DeepSea's answer is a pretty standard way to do this. But it's important to remember, that treating $hat p$ as Normally distributed is an approximation (albeit a quite good one most of the time).



              If you wanted to have a more "exact" answer, you could use the Binomial distribution.



              Let $Y$ be the number of people in the sample who have earned a Bachelors or higher. Then $Y sim Binom(100, 0.31)$ and $hat P = frac{Y}{n}$. Therefore:



              begin{equation}
              P(hat p > .40) = P(Y > 40) = 1 - F_Y(40) = 0.0218
              end{equation}



              Notice that DeepSea's answer gives a good approximation. But this is answer is more "exact".






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                0












                0








                0






                DeepSea's answer is a pretty standard way to do this. But it's important to remember, that treating $hat p$ as Normally distributed is an approximation (albeit a quite good one most of the time).



                If you wanted to have a more "exact" answer, you could use the Binomial distribution.



                Let $Y$ be the number of people in the sample who have earned a Bachelors or higher. Then $Y sim Binom(100, 0.31)$ and $hat P = frac{Y}{n}$. Therefore:



                begin{equation}
                P(hat p > .40) = P(Y > 40) = 1 - F_Y(40) = 0.0218
                end{equation}



                Notice that DeepSea's answer gives a good approximation. But this is answer is more "exact".






                share|cite|improve this answer












                DeepSea's answer is a pretty standard way to do this. But it's important to remember, that treating $hat p$ as Normally distributed is an approximation (albeit a quite good one most of the time).



                If you wanted to have a more "exact" answer, you could use the Binomial distribution.



                Let $Y$ be the number of people in the sample who have earned a Bachelors or higher. Then $Y sim Binom(100, 0.31)$ and $hat P = frac{Y}{n}$. Therefore:



                begin{equation}
                P(hat p > .40) = P(Y > 40) = 1 - F_Y(40) = 0.0218
                end{equation}



                Notice that DeepSea's answer gives a good approximation. But this is answer is more "exact".







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 1 '17 at 19:25









                knrumsey

                712310




                712310






























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