The totient of a factor of a number divides the totient of the number.
Given any number and one of its factors, how can you show that the totient of the factor divides the totient of the original number?
number-theory elementary-number-theory
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Given any number and one of its factors, how can you show that the totient of the factor divides the totient of the original number?
number-theory elementary-number-theory
What do you mean $phi(mn)=phi(m)+phi(n)$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Dec 9 at 0:22
I know that the totient of a number is equal to the sum of the totient of each of its factors so could we not make that statement since mn can be factored into m and n?
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:58
add a comment |
Given any number and one of its factors, how can you show that the totient of the factor divides the totient of the original number?
number-theory elementary-number-theory
Given any number and one of its factors, how can you show that the totient of the factor divides the totient of the original number?
number-theory elementary-number-theory
number-theory elementary-number-theory
edited Dec 10 at 0:27
asked Dec 9 at 0:20
Arthur Chong
62
62
What do you mean $phi(mn)=phi(m)+phi(n)$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Dec 9 at 0:22
I know that the totient of a number is equal to the sum of the totient of each of its factors so could we not make that statement since mn can be factored into m and n?
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:58
add a comment |
What do you mean $phi(mn)=phi(m)+phi(n)$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Dec 9 at 0:22
I know that the totient of a number is equal to the sum of the totient of each of its factors so could we not make that statement since mn can be factored into m and n?
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:58
What do you mean $phi(mn)=phi(m)+phi(n)$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Dec 9 at 0:22
What do you mean $phi(mn)=phi(m)+phi(n)$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Dec 9 at 0:22
I know that the totient of a number is equal to the sum of the totient of each of its factors so could we not make that statement since mn can be factored into m and n?
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:58
I know that the totient of a number is equal to the sum of the totient of each of its factors so could we not make that statement since mn can be factored into m and n?
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:58
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
- If $pmid n$ then $phi(pn)=pphi(n)$.
- If $pnmid n$ then $phi(pn)=(p-1)phi(n)$.
How would I exactly use this? I don't have that either m or n are prime.
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:59
add a comment |
Expanding on Hagen's answer: Let $mmid n$, we need to show that $phi(m)midphi(n)$. If $m$ is prime then we are done, since $phi(pm)=pphi(m)$. If $m$ is not prime, then it can be decomposed into a product of primes, say $prod p^alpha$. Then
$$phi(m)=phi(prod p^alpha)=prod p^{alpha-1}prod(p-1).$$
Now, $phi(n)$ can be expressed as this product times the totient function of all the extra prime factors $n$ has that is not in $m$. Think of this as because we have "taken out" all the prime powers of $m$ to get that product, and we can do the same thing for $n$ and still have "leftovers". The conclusion follows.
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
- If $pmid n$ then $phi(pn)=pphi(n)$.
- If $pnmid n$ then $phi(pn)=(p-1)phi(n)$.
How would I exactly use this? I don't have that either m or n are prime.
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:59
add a comment |
- If $pmid n$ then $phi(pn)=pphi(n)$.
- If $pnmid n$ then $phi(pn)=(p-1)phi(n)$.
How would I exactly use this? I don't have that either m or n are prime.
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:59
add a comment |
- If $pmid n$ then $phi(pn)=pphi(n)$.
- If $pnmid n$ then $phi(pn)=(p-1)phi(n)$.
- If $pmid n$ then $phi(pn)=pphi(n)$.
- If $pnmid n$ then $phi(pn)=(p-1)phi(n)$.
answered Dec 9 at 0:23
Hagen von Eitzen
276k21268495
276k21268495
How would I exactly use this? I don't have that either m or n are prime.
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:59
add a comment |
How would I exactly use this? I don't have that either m or n are prime.
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:59
How would I exactly use this? I don't have that either m or n are prime.
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:59
How would I exactly use this? I don't have that either m or n are prime.
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:59
add a comment |
Expanding on Hagen's answer: Let $mmid n$, we need to show that $phi(m)midphi(n)$. If $m$ is prime then we are done, since $phi(pm)=pphi(m)$. If $m$ is not prime, then it can be decomposed into a product of primes, say $prod p^alpha$. Then
$$phi(m)=phi(prod p^alpha)=prod p^{alpha-1}prod(p-1).$$
Now, $phi(n)$ can be expressed as this product times the totient function of all the extra prime factors $n$ has that is not in $m$. Think of this as because we have "taken out" all the prime powers of $m$ to get that product, and we can do the same thing for $n$ and still have "leftovers". The conclusion follows.
add a comment |
Expanding on Hagen's answer: Let $mmid n$, we need to show that $phi(m)midphi(n)$. If $m$ is prime then we are done, since $phi(pm)=pphi(m)$. If $m$ is not prime, then it can be decomposed into a product of primes, say $prod p^alpha$. Then
$$phi(m)=phi(prod p^alpha)=prod p^{alpha-1}prod(p-1).$$
Now, $phi(n)$ can be expressed as this product times the totient function of all the extra prime factors $n$ has that is not in $m$. Think of this as because we have "taken out" all the prime powers of $m$ to get that product, and we can do the same thing for $n$ and still have "leftovers". The conclusion follows.
add a comment |
Expanding on Hagen's answer: Let $mmid n$, we need to show that $phi(m)midphi(n)$. If $m$ is prime then we are done, since $phi(pm)=pphi(m)$. If $m$ is not prime, then it can be decomposed into a product of primes, say $prod p^alpha$. Then
$$phi(m)=phi(prod p^alpha)=prod p^{alpha-1}prod(p-1).$$
Now, $phi(n)$ can be expressed as this product times the totient function of all the extra prime factors $n$ has that is not in $m$. Think of this as because we have "taken out" all the prime powers of $m$ to get that product, and we can do the same thing for $n$ and still have "leftovers". The conclusion follows.
Expanding on Hagen's answer: Let $mmid n$, we need to show that $phi(m)midphi(n)$. If $m$ is prime then we are done, since $phi(pm)=pphi(m)$. If $m$ is not prime, then it can be decomposed into a product of primes, say $prod p^alpha$. Then
$$phi(m)=phi(prod p^alpha)=prod p^{alpha-1}prod(p-1).$$
Now, $phi(n)$ can be expressed as this product times the totient function of all the extra prime factors $n$ has that is not in $m$. Think of this as because we have "taken out" all the prime powers of $m$ to get that product, and we can do the same thing for $n$ and still have "leftovers". The conclusion follows.
answered Dec 10 at 0:41
YiFan
2,4041421
2,4041421
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add a comment |
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What do you mean $phi(mn)=phi(m)+phi(n)$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Dec 9 at 0:22
I know that the totient of a number is equal to the sum of the totient of each of its factors so could we not make that statement since mn can be factored into m and n?
– Arthur Chong
Dec 9 at 0:58