Minimal pair [y] – [y:] in Latin












9















Are there minimal pairs distinguished only by length of [y] in Latin? Was the short variant of /y/ pronounced like [ʏ]?










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  • Is puro pyro of any interest?

    – Hugh
    Dec 30 '18 at 12:02






  • 1





    @Hugh No, only pairs like Lўsis - Lȳsis are of any interest to me.

    – Дмитрий Борисов
    Dec 30 '18 at 14:01
















9















Are there minimal pairs distinguished only by length of [y] in Latin? Was the short variant of /y/ pronounced like [ʏ]?










share|improve this question

























  • Is puro pyro of any interest?

    – Hugh
    Dec 30 '18 at 12:02






  • 1





    @Hugh No, only pairs like Lўsis - Lȳsis are of any interest to me.

    – Дмитрий Борисов
    Dec 30 '18 at 14:01














9












9








9


3






Are there minimal pairs distinguished only by length of [y] in Latin? Was the short variant of /y/ pronounced like [ʏ]?










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Are there minimal pairs distinguished only by length of [y] in Latin? Was the short variant of /y/ pronounced like [ʏ]?







classical-latin vocabulary phonology






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edited Jan 13 at 13:39









Joonas Ilmavirta

47.4k1164274




47.4k1164274










asked Dec 29 '18 at 15:32









Дмитрий БорисовДмитрий Борисов

483




483













  • Is puro pyro of any interest?

    – Hugh
    Dec 30 '18 at 12:02






  • 1





    @Hugh No, only pairs like Lўsis - Lȳsis are of any interest to me.

    – Дмитрий Борисов
    Dec 30 '18 at 14:01



















  • Is puro pyro of any interest?

    – Hugh
    Dec 30 '18 at 12:02






  • 1





    @Hugh No, only pairs like Lўsis - Lȳsis are of any interest to me.

    – Дмитрий Борисов
    Dec 30 '18 at 14:01

















Is puro pyro of any interest?

– Hugh
Dec 30 '18 at 12:02





Is puro pyro of any interest?

– Hugh
Dec 30 '18 at 12:02




1




1





@Hugh No, only pairs like Lўsis - Lȳsis are of any interest to me.

– Дмитрий Борисов
Dec 30 '18 at 14:01





@Hugh No, only pairs like Lўsis - Lȳsis are of any interest to me.

– Дмитрий Борисов
Dec 30 '18 at 14:01










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















9














Great question!
I was previously unaware of any such pair, but browsing Lewis and Short (available online in various forms) brought up these:





  • lўsis: loosening, rupture, talon, ogee


  • Lўsis: a Pythagorean of Tarentum, instructor of Epaminondas


  • Lȳsis: a small river in Asia Minor


The letter is so rare in Latin that I doubt there are examples without Greek names.






share|improve this answer































    6














    The existence of /y/ and /y:/ in Classical Latin is mainly postulated as a part of non-nativized pronunciations for loanwords from Greek. Vowel length was phonemically distinctive for Y in Greek, and it was accordingly distinctive in Latin as well.



    In the popular language, it is thought that merger with /i/ and /i:/ was a possibility already in classical times.



    My impression is that it is rather difficult to determine at which points in time Latin did or did not have qualitative distinctions between corresponding long and short vowels. It does seem plausible that [ʏ] would have been used alongside [ɪ] and [ʊ], but I don’t think we really have any actual evidence for this.






    share|improve this answer































      5














      With respect to latter portion of the question only, I agree with @sumelic's answer that it is unlikely we have actual evidence of a qualitative difference between /y:/ and /y/, but I will supplement that with the following considerations:



      1) It is generally thought that the Latin high vowels were somewhat lowered in Classical times to [ɪ] and [ʊ]. If that was the case, I think there would be a natural tendency to lower short Y too, to [ʏ].



      2) On the other hand, /y/ was not a native Latin sound, and I've never seen any evidence that Greek short ι and υ were qualitatively any different from their long equivalents. That being the case, an educated Latin speaker would be likely to pronounce short Y as in Greek, viz. [y].



      So, I think there are arguments for both possibilities, and it's quite likely (in my opinion) that both could be used by different speakers.






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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        9














        Great question!
        I was previously unaware of any such pair, but browsing Lewis and Short (available online in various forms) brought up these:





        • lўsis: loosening, rupture, talon, ogee


        • Lўsis: a Pythagorean of Tarentum, instructor of Epaminondas


        • Lȳsis: a small river in Asia Minor


        The letter is so rare in Latin that I doubt there are examples without Greek names.






        share|improve this answer




























          9














          Great question!
          I was previously unaware of any such pair, but browsing Lewis and Short (available online in various forms) brought up these:





          • lўsis: loosening, rupture, talon, ogee


          • Lўsis: a Pythagorean of Tarentum, instructor of Epaminondas


          • Lȳsis: a small river in Asia Minor


          The letter is so rare in Latin that I doubt there are examples without Greek names.






          share|improve this answer


























            9












            9








            9







            Great question!
            I was previously unaware of any such pair, but browsing Lewis and Short (available online in various forms) brought up these:





            • lўsis: loosening, rupture, talon, ogee


            • Lўsis: a Pythagorean of Tarentum, instructor of Epaminondas


            • Lȳsis: a small river in Asia Minor


            The letter is so rare in Latin that I doubt there are examples without Greek names.






            share|improve this answer













            Great question!
            I was previously unaware of any such pair, but browsing Lewis and Short (available online in various forms) brought up these:





            • lўsis: loosening, rupture, talon, ogee


            • Lўsis: a Pythagorean of Tarentum, instructor of Epaminondas


            • Lȳsis: a small river in Asia Minor


            The letter is so rare in Latin that I doubt there are examples without Greek names.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered Dec 29 '18 at 17:26









            Joonas IlmavirtaJoonas Ilmavirta

            47.4k1164274




            47.4k1164274























                6














                The existence of /y/ and /y:/ in Classical Latin is mainly postulated as a part of non-nativized pronunciations for loanwords from Greek. Vowel length was phonemically distinctive for Y in Greek, and it was accordingly distinctive in Latin as well.



                In the popular language, it is thought that merger with /i/ and /i:/ was a possibility already in classical times.



                My impression is that it is rather difficult to determine at which points in time Latin did or did not have qualitative distinctions between corresponding long and short vowels. It does seem plausible that [ʏ] would have been used alongside [ɪ] and [ʊ], but I don’t think we really have any actual evidence for this.






                share|improve this answer




























                  6














                  The existence of /y/ and /y:/ in Classical Latin is mainly postulated as a part of non-nativized pronunciations for loanwords from Greek. Vowel length was phonemically distinctive for Y in Greek, and it was accordingly distinctive in Latin as well.



                  In the popular language, it is thought that merger with /i/ and /i:/ was a possibility already in classical times.



                  My impression is that it is rather difficult to determine at which points in time Latin did or did not have qualitative distinctions between corresponding long and short vowels. It does seem plausible that [ʏ] would have been used alongside [ɪ] and [ʊ], but I don’t think we really have any actual evidence for this.






                  share|improve this answer


























                    6












                    6








                    6







                    The existence of /y/ and /y:/ in Classical Latin is mainly postulated as a part of non-nativized pronunciations for loanwords from Greek. Vowel length was phonemically distinctive for Y in Greek, and it was accordingly distinctive in Latin as well.



                    In the popular language, it is thought that merger with /i/ and /i:/ was a possibility already in classical times.



                    My impression is that it is rather difficult to determine at which points in time Latin did or did not have qualitative distinctions between corresponding long and short vowels. It does seem plausible that [ʏ] would have been used alongside [ɪ] and [ʊ], but I don’t think we really have any actual evidence for this.






                    share|improve this answer













                    The existence of /y/ and /y:/ in Classical Latin is mainly postulated as a part of non-nativized pronunciations for loanwords from Greek. Vowel length was phonemically distinctive for Y in Greek, and it was accordingly distinctive in Latin as well.



                    In the popular language, it is thought that merger with /i/ and /i:/ was a possibility already in classical times.



                    My impression is that it is rather difficult to determine at which points in time Latin did or did not have qualitative distinctions between corresponding long and short vowels. It does seem plausible that [ʏ] would have been used alongside [ɪ] and [ʊ], but I don’t think we really have any actual evidence for this.







                    share|improve this answer












                    share|improve this answer



                    share|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 29 '18 at 17:37









                    sumelicsumelic

                    7,11311649




                    7,11311649























                        5














                        With respect to latter portion of the question only, I agree with @sumelic's answer that it is unlikely we have actual evidence of a qualitative difference between /y:/ and /y/, but I will supplement that with the following considerations:



                        1) It is generally thought that the Latin high vowels were somewhat lowered in Classical times to [ɪ] and [ʊ]. If that was the case, I think there would be a natural tendency to lower short Y too, to [ʏ].



                        2) On the other hand, /y/ was not a native Latin sound, and I've never seen any evidence that Greek short ι and υ were qualitatively any different from their long equivalents. That being the case, an educated Latin speaker would be likely to pronounce short Y as in Greek, viz. [y].



                        So, I think there are arguments for both possibilities, and it's quite likely (in my opinion) that both could be used by different speakers.






                        share|improve this answer






























                          5














                          With respect to latter portion of the question only, I agree with @sumelic's answer that it is unlikely we have actual evidence of a qualitative difference between /y:/ and /y/, but I will supplement that with the following considerations:



                          1) It is generally thought that the Latin high vowels were somewhat lowered in Classical times to [ɪ] and [ʊ]. If that was the case, I think there would be a natural tendency to lower short Y too, to [ʏ].



                          2) On the other hand, /y/ was not a native Latin sound, and I've never seen any evidence that Greek short ι and υ were qualitatively any different from their long equivalents. That being the case, an educated Latin speaker would be likely to pronounce short Y as in Greek, viz. [y].



                          So, I think there are arguments for both possibilities, and it's quite likely (in my opinion) that both could be used by different speakers.






                          share|improve this answer




























                            5












                            5








                            5







                            With respect to latter portion of the question only, I agree with @sumelic's answer that it is unlikely we have actual evidence of a qualitative difference between /y:/ and /y/, but I will supplement that with the following considerations:



                            1) It is generally thought that the Latin high vowels were somewhat lowered in Classical times to [ɪ] and [ʊ]. If that was the case, I think there would be a natural tendency to lower short Y too, to [ʏ].



                            2) On the other hand, /y/ was not a native Latin sound, and I've never seen any evidence that Greek short ι and υ were qualitatively any different from their long equivalents. That being the case, an educated Latin speaker would be likely to pronounce short Y as in Greek, viz. [y].



                            So, I think there are arguments for both possibilities, and it's quite likely (in my opinion) that both could be used by different speakers.






                            share|improve this answer















                            With respect to latter portion of the question only, I agree with @sumelic's answer that it is unlikely we have actual evidence of a qualitative difference between /y:/ and /y/, but I will supplement that with the following considerations:



                            1) It is generally thought that the Latin high vowels were somewhat lowered in Classical times to [ɪ] and [ʊ]. If that was the case, I think there would be a natural tendency to lower short Y too, to [ʏ].



                            2) On the other hand, /y/ was not a native Latin sound, and I've never seen any evidence that Greek short ι and υ were qualitatively any different from their long equivalents. That being the case, an educated Latin speaker would be likely to pronounce short Y as in Greek, viz. [y].



                            So, I think there are arguments for both possibilities, and it's quite likely (in my opinion) that both could be used by different speakers.







                            share|improve this answer














                            share|improve this answer



                            share|improve this answer








                            edited Dec 29 '18 at 18:22

























                            answered Dec 29 '18 at 18:16









                            varrovarro

                            3,7051315




                            3,7051315






























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