Derivative of Left invarinat differential form












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Let $omega:Grightarrow Lambda^1 T^*G$ be a left invarinat $1$-form on $G$ i.e., $(L_g)^*omega=omega$ for each $gin G$.



Is it true that $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is constant for any vector field $Y:Grightarrow TG$ of $G$?



I see that if $Y$ is of the form $A^*$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$ then $omega(Y)$ is the constant function $A$.



Given $Ain mathfrak{g}$, we have $A^*:Grightarrow TG$ is defined as $A^*(g)=(L_g)_{*,e}(A)$.



We have $omega(Y):Grightarrowmathbb{R}$ given by $gmapsto omega(g)(Y(g))$.



As $omega$ is left invariant, we have $omega(g)(v)=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}(v))$.



For $Y=A^*$, we have $$omega(g)(Y(g))=omega(g)(A^*(g))
=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}((L_g)_{*,e}(A)))=omega(e)(A).$$

Thus, $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is the constant function $omega(e)(A)$ when $Y=A^*$.




Is it true for an arbitrary vector field $Y$ on $G$ that $omega(Y)$ is constant for a left invariant $1$-form $omega$ on $G$?




We have $domega(X,Y)=frac{1}{2}(X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))-omega[X,Y])$.



As mentioned above, $omega(A^*)$ is constant, so, $B^*(omega(A^*))$ is zero map and for similar reason $A^*(omega(B^*))$ is zero map for any $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$. So, $domega(A^*,B^*)=-frac{1}{2}omega[A^*,B^*]$.



In case $omega(Y)$ is constant for any vector field $Y$ on $G$ we will then have $domega(X,Y)=-frac{1}{2}omega[X,Y]$.



I do not think this is true but wikipedia article says it is true for any vector fields $X,Y$ on $G$ not necessarily left invariant vector fields i.e., of the form $A^*,B^*$ for some $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$.



EDIT : Wikipedia section says the following :




In particular, if $X$ and $Y$ are left-invariant, then $X(omega (Y))=Y(omega (X))=0,$ so $$domega (X,Y)+frac{1}{2}[omega (X),omega (Y)]=0$$
but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in $T_eG$ under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields $X$ and $Y$. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation.











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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
    $endgroup$
    – C. Falcon
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:18












  • $begingroup$
    It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:26
















0












$begingroup$


Let $omega:Grightarrow Lambda^1 T^*G$ be a left invarinat $1$-form on $G$ i.e., $(L_g)^*omega=omega$ for each $gin G$.



Is it true that $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is constant for any vector field $Y:Grightarrow TG$ of $G$?



I see that if $Y$ is of the form $A^*$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$ then $omega(Y)$ is the constant function $A$.



Given $Ain mathfrak{g}$, we have $A^*:Grightarrow TG$ is defined as $A^*(g)=(L_g)_{*,e}(A)$.



We have $omega(Y):Grightarrowmathbb{R}$ given by $gmapsto omega(g)(Y(g))$.



As $omega$ is left invariant, we have $omega(g)(v)=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}(v))$.



For $Y=A^*$, we have $$omega(g)(Y(g))=omega(g)(A^*(g))
=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}((L_g)_{*,e}(A)))=omega(e)(A).$$

Thus, $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is the constant function $omega(e)(A)$ when $Y=A^*$.




Is it true for an arbitrary vector field $Y$ on $G$ that $omega(Y)$ is constant for a left invariant $1$-form $omega$ on $G$?




We have $domega(X,Y)=frac{1}{2}(X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))-omega[X,Y])$.



As mentioned above, $omega(A^*)$ is constant, so, $B^*(omega(A^*))$ is zero map and for similar reason $A^*(omega(B^*))$ is zero map for any $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$. So, $domega(A^*,B^*)=-frac{1}{2}omega[A^*,B^*]$.



In case $omega(Y)$ is constant for any vector field $Y$ on $G$ we will then have $domega(X,Y)=-frac{1}{2}omega[X,Y]$.



I do not think this is true but wikipedia article says it is true for any vector fields $X,Y$ on $G$ not necessarily left invariant vector fields i.e., of the form $A^*,B^*$ for some $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$.



EDIT : Wikipedia section says the following :




In particular, if $X$ and $Y$ are left-invariant, then $X(omega (Y))=Y(omega (X))=0,$ so $$domega (X,Y)+frac{1}{2}[omega (X),omega (Y)]=0$$
but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in $T_eG$ under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields $X$ and $Y$. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
    $endgroup$
    – C. Falcon
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:18












  • $begingroup$
    It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:26














0












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$begingroup$


Let $omega:Grightarrow Lambda^1 T^*G$ be a left invarinat $1$-form on $G$ i.e., $(L_g)^*omega=omega$ for each $gin G$.



Is it true that $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is constant for any vector field $Y:Grightarrow TG$ of $G$?



I see that if $Y$ is of the form $A^*$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$ then $omega(Y)$ is the constant function $A$.



Given $Ain mathfrak{g}$, we have $A^*:Grightarrow TG$ is defined as $A^*(g)=(L_g)_{*,e}(A)$.



We have $omega(Y):Grightarrowmathbb{R}$ given by $gmapsto omega(g)(Y(g))$.



As $omega$ is left invariant, we have $omega(g)(v)=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}(v))$.



For $Y=A^*$, we have $$omega(g)(Y(g))=omega(g)(A^*(g))
=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}((L_g)_{*,e}(A)))=omega(e)(A).$$

Thus, $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is the constant function $omega(e)(A)$ when $Y=A^*$.




Is it true for an arbitrary vector field $Y$ on $G$ that $omega(Y)$ is constant for a left invariant $1$-form $omega$ on $G$?




We have $domega(X,Y)=frac{1}{2}(X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))-omega[X,Y])$.



As mentioned above, $omega(A^*)$ is constant, so, $B^*(omega(A^*))$ is zero map and for similar reason $A^*(omega(B^*))$ is zero map for any $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$. So, $domega(A^*,B^*)=-frac{1}{2}omega[A^*,B^*]$.



In case $omega(Y)$ is constant for any vector field $Y$ on $G$ we will then have $domega(X,Y)=-frac{1}{2}omega[X,Y]$.



I do not think this is true but wikipedia article says it is true for any vector fields $X,Y$ on $G$ not necessarily left invariant vector fields i.e., of the form $A^*,B^*$ for some $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$.



EDIT : Wikipedia section says the following :




In particular, if $X$ and $Y$ are left-invariant, then $X(omega (Y))=Y(omega (X))=0,$ so $$domega (X,Y)+frac{1}{2}[omega (X),omega (Y)]=0$$
but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in $T_eG$ under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields $X$ and $Y$. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $omega:Grightarrow Lambda^1 T^*G$ be a left invarinat $1$-form on $G$ i.e., $(L_g)^*omega=omega$ for each $gin G$.



Is it true that $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is constant for any vector field $Y:Grightarrow TG$ of $G$?



I see that if $Y$ is of the form $A^*$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$ then $omega(Y)$ is the constant function $A$.



Given $Ain mathfrak{g}$, we have $A^*:Grightarrow TG$ is defined as $A^*(g)=(L_g)_{*,e}(A)$.



We have $omega(Y):Grightarrowmathbb{R}$ given by $gmapsto omega(g)(Y(g))$.



As $omega$ is left invariant, we have $omega(g)(v)=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}(v))$.



For $Y=A^*$, we have $$omega(g)(Y(g))=omega(g)(A^*(g))
=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}((L_g)_{*,e}(A)))=omega(e)(A).$$

Thus, $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is the constant function $omega(e)(A)$ when $Y=A^*$.




Is it true for an arbitrary vector field $Y$ on $G$ that $omega(Y)$ is constant for a left invariant $1$-form $omega$ on $G$?




We have $domega(X,Y)=frac{1}{2}(X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))-omega[X,Y])$.



As mentioned above, $omega(A^*)$ is constant, so, $B^*(omega(A^*))$ is zero map and for similar reason $A^*(omega(B^*))$ is zero map for any $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$. So, $domega(A^*,B^*)=-frac{1}{2}omega[A^*,B^*]$.



In case $omega(Y)$ is constant for any vector field $Y$ on $G$ we will then have $domega(X,Y)=-frac{1}{2}omega[X,Y]$.



I do not think this is true but wikipedia article says it is true for any vector fields $X,Y$ on $G$ not necessarily left invariant vector fields i.e., of the form $A^*,B^*$ for some $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$.



EDIT : Wikipedia section says the following :




In particular, if $X$ and $Y$ are left-invariant, then $X(omega (Y))=Y(omega (X))=0,$ so $$domega (X,Y)+frac{1}{2}[omega (X),omega (Y)]=0$$
but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in $T_eG$ under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields $X$ and $Y$. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation.








differential-geometry lie-groups differential-forms






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edited Dec 29 '18 at 18:22









C. Falcon

15.2k41950




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asked Dec 29 '18 at 17:46









Praphulla KoushikPraphulla Koushik

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16419












  • $begingroup$
    Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
    $endgroup$
    – C. Falcon
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:18












  • $begingroup$
    It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:26


















  • $begingroup$
    Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
    $endgroup$
    – C. Falcon
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:18












  • $begingroup$
    It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:26
















$begingroup$
Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
$endgroup$
– C. Falcon
Dec 29 '18 at 18:18






$begingroup$
Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
$endgroup$
– C. Falcon
Dec 29 '18 at 18:18














$begingroup$
It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:26




$begingroup$
It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:26










1 Answer
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No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.



Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.



EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:09










  • $begingroup$
    As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:36











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$

No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.



Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.



EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:09










  • $begingroup$
    As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
















2












$begingroup$

No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.



Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.



EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:09










  • $begingroup$
    As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:36














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2








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No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.



Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.



EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.






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$endgroup$



No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.



Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.



EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 29 '18 at 18:22

























answered Dec 29 '18 at 18:01









MaxMax

2,217711




2,217711












  • $begingroup$
    10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:09










  • $begingroup$
    As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:36


















  • $begingroup$
    10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:09










  • $begingroup$
    As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
    $endgroup$
    – Praphulla Koushik
    Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
















$begingroup$
10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02




$begingroup$
10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02




1




1




$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
$endgroup$
– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07




$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
$endgroup$
– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07












$begingroup$
Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09




$begingroup$
Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09












$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35




$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35












$begingroup$
This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36




$begingroup$
This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36


















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