Derivative of Left invarinat differential form
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Let $omega:Grightarrow Lambda^1 T^*G$ be a left invarinat $1$-form on $G$ i.e., $(L_g)^*omega=omega$ for each $gin G$.
Is it true that $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is constant for any vector field $Y:Grightarrow TG$ of $G$?
I see that if $Y$ is of the form $A^*$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$ then $omega(Y)$ is the constant function $A$.
Given $Ain mathfrak{g}$, we have $A^*:Grightarrow TG$ is defined as $A^*(g)=(L_g)_{*,e}(A)$.
We have $omega(Y):Grightarrowmathbb{R}$ given by $gmapsto omega(g)(Y(g))$.
As $omega$ is left invariant, we have $omega(g)(v)=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}(v))$.
For $Y=A^*$, we have $$omega(g)(Y(g))=omega(g)(A^*(g))
=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}((L_g)_{*,e}(A)))=omega(e)(A).$$
Thus, $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is the constant function $omega(e)(A)$ when $Y=A^*$.
Is it true for an arbitrary vector field $Y$ on $G$ that $omega(Y)$ is constant for a left invariant $1$-form $omega$ on $G$?
We have $domega(X,Y)=frac{1}{2}(X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))-omega[X,Y])$.
As mentioned above, $omega(A^*)$ is constant, so, $B^*(omega(A^*))$ is zero map and for similar reason $A^*(omega(B^*))$ is zero map for any $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$. So, $domega(A^*,B^*)=-frac{1}{2}omega[A^*,B^*]$.
In case $omega(Y)$ is constant for any vector field $Y$ on $G$ we will then have $domega(X,Y)=-frac{1}{2}omega[X,Y]$.
I do not think this is true but wikipedia article says it is true for any vector fields $X,Y$ on $G$ not necessarily left invariant vector fields i.e., of the form $A^*,B^*$ for some $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$.
EDIT : Wikipedia section says the following :
In particular, if $X$ and $Y$ are left-invariant, then $X(omega (Y))=Y(omega (X))=0,$ so $$domega (X,Y)+frac{1}{2}[omega (X),omega (Y)]=0$$
but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in $T_eG$ under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields $X$ and $Y$. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation.
differential-geometry lie-groups differential-forms
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $omega:Grightarrow Lambda^1 T^*G$ be a left invarinat $1$-form on $G$ i.e., $(L_g)^*omega=omega$ for each $gin G$.
Is it true that $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is constant for any vector field $Y:Grightarrow TG$ of $G$?
I see that if $Y$ is of the form $A^*$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$ then $omega(Y)$ is the constant function $A$.
Given $Ain mathfrak{g}$, we have $A^*:Grightarrow TG$ is defined as $A^*(g)=(L_g)_{*,e}(A)$.
We have $omega(Y):Grightarrowmathbb{R}$ given by $gmapsto omega(g)(Y(g))$.
As $omega$ is left invariant, we have $omega(g)(v)=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}(v))$.
For $Y=A^*$, we have $$omega(g)(Y(g))=omega(g)(A^*(g))
=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}((L_g)_{*,e}(A)))=omega(e)(A).$$
Thus, $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is the constant function $omega(e)(A)$ when $Y=A^*$.
Is it true for an arbitrary vector field $Y$ on $G$ that $omega(Y)$ is constant for a left invariant $1$-form $omega$ on $G$?
We have $domega(X,Y)=frac{1}{2}(X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))-omega[X,Y])$.
As mentioned above, $omega(A^*)$ is constant, so, $B^*(omega(A^*))$ is zero map and for similar reason $A^*(omega(B^*))$ is zero map for any $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$. So, $domega(A^*,B^*)=-frac{1}{2}omega[A^*,B^*]$.
In case $omega(Y)$ is constant for any vector field $Y$ on $G$ we will then have $domega(X,Y)=-frac{1}{2}omega[X,Y]$.
I do not think this is true but wikipedia article says it is true for any vector fields $X,Y$ on $G$ not necessarily left invariant vector fields i.e., of the form $A^*,B^*$ for some $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$.
EDIT : Wikipedia section says the following :
In particular, if $X$ and $Y$ are left-invariant, then $X(omega (Y))=Y(omega (X))=0,$ so $$domega (X,Y)+frac{1}{2}[omega (X),omega (Y)]=0$$
but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in $T_eG$ under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields $X$ and $Y$. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation.
differential-geometry lie-groups differential-forms
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
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– C. Falcon
Dec 29 '18 at 18:18
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It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $omega:Grightarrow Lambda^1 T^*G$ be a left invarinat $1$-form on $G$ i.e., $(L_g)^*omega=omega$ for each $gin G$.
Is it true that $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is constant for any vector field $Y:Grightarrow TG$ of $G$?
I see that if $Y$ is of the form $A^*$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$ then $omega(Y)$ is the constant function $A$.
Given $Ain mathfrak{g}$, we have $A^*:Grightarrow TG$ is defined as $A^*(g)=(L_g)_{*,e}(A)$.
We have $omega(Y):Grightarrowmathbb{R}$ given by $gmapsto omega(g)(Y(g))$.
As $omega$ is left invariant, we have $omega(g)(v)=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}(v))$.
For $Y=A^*$, we have $$omega(g)(Y(g))=omega(g)(A^*(g))
=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}((L_g)_{*,e}(A)))=omega(e)(A).$$
Thus, $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is the constant function $omega(e)(A)$ when $Y=A^*$.
Is it true for an arbitrary vector field $Y$ on $G$ that $omega(Y)$ is constant for a left invariant $1$-form $omega$ on $G$?
We have $domega(X,Y)=frac{1}{2}(X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))-omega[X,Y])$.
As mentioned above, $omega(A^*)$ is constant, so, $B^*(omega(A^*))$ is zero map and for similar reason $A^*(omega(B^*))$ is zero map for any $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$. So, $domega(A^*,B^*)=-frac{1}{2}omega[A^*,B^*]$.
In case $omega(Y)$ is constant for any vector field $Y$ on $G$ we will then have $domega(X,Y)=-frac{1}{2}omega[X,Y]$.
I do not think this is true but wikipedia article says it is true for any vector fields $X,Y$ on $G$ not necessarily left invariant vector fields i.e., of the form $A^*,B^*$ for some $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$.
EDIT : Wikipedia section says the following :
In particular, if $X$ and $Y$ are left-invariant, then $X(omega (Y))=Y(omega (X))=0,$ so $$domega (X,Y)+frac{1}{2}[omega (X),omega (Y)]=0$$
but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in $T_eG$ under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields $X$ and $Y$. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation.
differential-geometry lie-groups differential-forms
$endgroup$
Let $omega:Grightarrow Lambda^1 T^*G$ be a left invarinat $1$-form on $G$ i.e., $(L_g)^*omega=omega$ for each $gin G$.
Is it true that $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is constant for any vector field $Y:Grightarrow TG$ of $G$?
I see that if $Y$ is of the form $A^*$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$ then $omega(Y)$ is the constant function $A$.
Given $Ain mathfrak{g}$, we have $A^*:Grightarrow TG$ is defined as $A^*(g)=(L_g)_{*,e}(A)$.
We have $omega(Y):Grightarrowmathbb{R}$ given by $gmapsto omega(g)(Y(g))$.
As $omega$ is left invariant, we have $omega(g)(v)=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}(v))$.
For $Y=A^*$, we have $$omega(g)(Y(g))=omega(g)(A^*(g))
=omega(e)((L_{g^{-1}})_{*,g}((L_g)_{*,e}(A)))=omega(e)(A).$$
Thus, $omega(Y):Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ is the constant function $omega(e)(A)$ when $Y=A^*$.
Is it true for an arbitrary vector field $Y$ on $G$ that $omega(Y)$ is constant for a left invariant $1$-form $omega$ on $G$?
We have $domega(X,Y)=frac{1}{2}(X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))-omega[X,Y])$.
As mentioned above, $omega(A^*)$ is constant, so, $B^*(omega(A^*))$ is zero map and for similar reason $A^*(omega(B^*))$ is zero map for any $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$. So, $domega(A^*,B^*)=-frac{1}{2}omega[A^*,B^*]$.
In case $omega(Y)$ is constant for any vector field $Y$ on $G$ we will then have $domega(X,Y)=-frac{1}{2}omega[X,Y]$.
I do not think this is true but wikipedia article says it is true for any vector fields $X,Y$ on $G$ not necessarily left invariant vector fields i.e., of the form $A^*,B^*$ for some $A,Bin mathfrak{g}$.
EDIT : Wikipedia section says the following :
In particular, if $X$ and $Y$ are left-invariant, then $X(omega (Y))=Y(omega (X))=0,$ so $$domega (X,Y)+frac{1}{2}[omega (X),omega (Y)]=0$$
but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in $T_eG$ under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields $X$ and $Y$. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation.
differential-geometry lie-groups differential-forms
differential-geometry lie-groups differential-forms
edited Dec 29 '18 at 18:22
C. Falcon
15.2k41950
15.2k41950
asked Dec 29 '18 at 17:46
Praphulla KoushikPraphulla Koushik
16419
16419
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Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
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– C. Falcon
Dec 29 '18 at 18:18
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It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
$endgroup$
– C. Falcon
Dec 29 '18 at 18:18
$begingroup$
It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
$endgroup$
– C. Falcon
Dec 29 '18 at 18:18
$begingroup$
Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
$endgroup$
– C. Falcon
Dec 29 '18 at 18:18
$begingroup$
It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:26
add a comment |
1 Answer
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No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.
Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.
EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.
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10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02
1
$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
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– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07
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Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35
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This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
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No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.
Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.
EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02
1
$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
$endgroup$
– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.
Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.
EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02
1
$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
$endgroup$
– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.
Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.
EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.
$endgroup$
No. Let $G=mathbb{R}$ with coordinate $t$. The 1-form $omega=mathrm{d}t$ is left invariant. Now choose any non-constant vector field, e.g. $Y=tfrac{partial}{partial t}$. Then $omega(Y)=t$.
Of course, as you say, evaluating a left-invariant 1-form on a left-invariant vector field does result in a constant function.
EDIT: To conclude the Maurer-Cartan equation just take arbitrary vector fields $X,Y$ and express them as $X=f_iX^i,Y=g_iX^i$ for some left-invariant vector fields $X^i$. Then notice that the equation is (bi)linear over functions so the case of left-invariant vector fields implies the general case.
edited Dec 29 '18 at 18:22
answered Dec 29 '18 at 18:01
MaxMax
2,217711
2,217711
$begingroup$
10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02
1
$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
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– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07
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Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02
1
$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
$endgroup$
– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
$begingroup$
10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02
$begingroup$
10 seconds before you post your answer. I have edited the question. :) Please have a look at that.... en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maurer%E2%80%93Cartan_form#Properties
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:02
1
1
$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
$endgroup$
– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
The article only claims that $omega(Y)$ is constant when $omega$ and $Y$ are left-invariant. A few lines later, it gives the general formula for $mathrm{d}omega$ when $X,Y$ are arbitrary, but then it returns to the special case that they are left-invariant. So all your calculations are correct and in agreement with the article but the answer to your question is no.
$endgroup$
– Max
Dec 29 '18 at 18:07
$begingroup$
Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Thanks for the example.. I agree that answer is no... Wikipedia page says "but the left-invariant fields span the tangent space at any point (the push-forward of a basis in TeG under a diffeomorphism is still a basis), so the equation is true for any pair of vector fields X and Y. This is known as the Maurer–Cartan equation. It is often written as..." see before Maurer-Cartan frame section...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
As $mathfrak{g}$ is finite dimensional let ${A_1,cdots,A_n}$ be a basis for $mathfrak{g}$.. Let $Y$ be a vector field on $G$.. Fix $gin G$.. We have $Y(g)=A^*(g)$ for some $Ain mathfrak{g}$... So, $Y(g)=(sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i)^*(g)$ for some $a_iin mathbb{R}$ i.e., $Y(g)=sum_{i=1}^n a_iA_i^*(g)$.. Here, $a_i$ depends on $g$.. Once you vary $g$ over $G$ you get smooth maps $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$.. So, we have $Y=sum_{i=1}^n a_i A_i^*$ where $a_i:Grightarrow mathbb{R}$ are smooth maps and $A_i^*:Grightarrow TG$ are left invarinat vect fields..
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:35
$begingroup$
This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
$begingroup$
This is what you mean when you write $X=f_i X^i$, right? I got the idea... Thank you...
$endgroup$
– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:36
|
show 2 more comments
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$begingroup$
Notice that $mathrm{d}omega(X,Y)$ can be equal to $-frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ without $omega(X)$ and $omega(Y)$ being constant. Everything that you have written is true and the Wikipedia section you quote is also true. What is used in the Wikipedia article is that $(X,Y)mapstomathrm{d}omega+frac{1}{2}[omega(X),omega(Y)]$ is $C^infty$-bilinear, it is a $(2,0)$-tensor.
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– C. Falcon
Dec 29 '18 at 18:18
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It can happen that $omega(Y)$ and $omega(X)$ are not constant but $X(omega(Y))-Y(omega(X))=0$... I was reading what is written in Wikipedia in a strange way so I got confused.. @C.Falcon
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– Praphulla Koushik
Dec 29 '18 at 18:26