Solving a complex integral $oint_Lfrac{e^{1/(z-a)}}zdz$ using Cauchy's formula
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I am practicing complex integration using Cauchy's formula, and I ran into a problem. The following integral:
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz$$ where $$L={zinmathbb{C}:|z|=r}$$ for some $rneq|a|$.
So the contour is a circle in the origin that can not pass through one of the singularities $a$. The other singularity being $0$. That means it's eather of a greater or lesser radius than $|a|$. If it is of a radius lesser than $|a|$, then by Cauchy's formula:
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{(z-0)}}dz = frac{2pi i}{e^{1/a}}$$
If, however, $r>|a|$ then the integral would be the sum of the integrals of two separate disjunct contours containing only the $0$ singularity and only the $a$ singularity. This is where I'm stuck. I'm not sure how to solve the integral of the contour containing the $a$ singularity (can't get it in Cauchy formula form).
integration complex-analysis complex-integration cauchy-integral-formula
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add a comment |
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I am practicing complex integration using Cauchy's formula, and I ran into a problem. The following integral:
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz$$ where $$L={zinmathbb{C}:|z|=r}$$ for some $rneq|a|$.
So the contour is a circle in the origin that can not pass through one of the singularities $a$. The other singularity being $0$. That means it's eather of a greater or lesser radius than $|a|$. If it is of a radius lesser than $|a|$, then by Cauchy's formula:
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{(z-0)}}dz = frac{2pi i}{e^{1/a}}$$
If, however, $r>|a|$ then the integral would be the sum of the integrals of two separate disjunct contours containing only the $0$ singularity and only the $a$ singularity. This is where I'm stuck. I'm not sure how to solve the integral of the contour containing the $a$ singularity (can't get it in Cauchy formula form).
integration complex-analysis complex-integration cauchy-integral-formula
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am practicing complex integration using Cauchy's formula, and I ran into a problem. The following integral:
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz$$ where $$L={zinmathbb{C}:|z|=r}$$ for some $rneq|a|$.
So the contour is a circle in the origin that can not pass through one of the singularities $a$. The other singularity being $0$. That means it's eather of a greater or lesser radius than $|a|$. If it is of a radius lesser than $|a|$, then by Cauchy's formula:
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{(z-0)}}dz = frac{2pi i}{e^{1/a}}$$
If, however, $r>|a|$ then the integral would be the sum of the integrals of two separate disjunct contours containing only the $0$ singularity and only the $a$ singularity. This is where I'm stuck. I'm not sure how to solve the integral of the contour containing the $a$ singularity (can't get it in Cauchy formula form).
integration complex-analysis complex-integration cauchy-integral-formula
$endgroup$
I am practicing complex integration using Cauchy's formula, and I ran into a problem. The following integral:
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz$$ where $$L={zinmathbb{C}:|z|=r}$$ for some $rneq|a|$.
So the contour is a circle in the origin that can not pass through one of the singularities $a$. The other singularity being $0$. That means it's eather of a greater or lesser radius than $|a|$. If it is of a radius lesser than $|a|$, then by Cauchy's formula:
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{(z-0)}}dz = frac{2pi i}{e^{1/a}}$$
If, however, $r>|a|$ then the integral would be the sum of the integrals of two separate disjunct contours containing only the $0$ singularity and only the $a$ singularity. This is where I'm stuck. I'm not sure how to solve the integral of the contour containing the $a$ singularity (can't get it in Cauchy formula form).
integration complex-analysis complex-integration cauchy-integral-formula
integration complex-analysis complex-integration cauchy-integral-formula
edited Jan 2 at 15:59
Did
248k23225463
248k23225463
asked Jan 2 at 15:56
math101math101
597
597
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2 Answers
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Hint
I would suggest to use Residue theorem here. This theorem is a consequence of Cauchy’s formula.
For a radius $r > vert a vert$, you get
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz =2ipi left(frac{1}{e^{1/a}}+mbox{Res}(f,a)right)$$
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Yes, I tried to, but I'm not sure how to get $Res(f,a)$ to be equal $frac{1}{a}$.
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– math101
Jan 2 at 16:37
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I edited because I may have done an error in The computation of the residue. You can compute it by finding $a_{-1}$ where $sum_{-infty}^infty a_n (z-a)^n$ is Laurent expansion of $f$ at $a$.
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– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 2 at 16:51
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I see. I'm struggling with that too a bit, but from what I've done so far, I don't think the series is going to have any negative terms ?
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– math101
Jan 2 at 17:07
add a comment |
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See this answer. Instead of taking the residue at $z = a$, take the residue at $z = infty$, which is the value of $-e^{1/(z - a)}$ at $z = infty$.
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This is the better approach.
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– Szeto
Jan 3 at 13:32
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Hint
I would suggest to use Residue theorem here. This theorem is a consequence of Cauchy’s formula.
For a radius $r > vert a vert$, you get
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz =2ipi left(frac{1}{e^{1/a}}+mbox{Res}(f,a)right)$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Yes, I tried to, but I'm not sure how to get $Res(f,a)$ to be equal $frac{1}{a}$.
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 16:37
$begingroup$
I edited because I may have done an error in The computation of the residue. You can compute it by finding $a_{-1}$ where $sum_{-infty}^infty a_n (z-a)^n$ is Laurent expansion of $f$ at $a$.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 2 at 16:51
$begingroup$
I see. I'm struggling with that too a bit, but from what I've done so far, I don't think the series is going to have any negative terms ?
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint
I would suggest to use Residue theorem here. This theorem is a consequence of Cauchy’s formula.
For a radius $r > vert a vert$, you get
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz =2ipi left(frac{1}{e^{1/a}}+mbox{Res}(f,a)right)$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Yes, I tried to, but I'm not sure how to get $Res(f,a)$ to be equal $frac{1}{a}$.
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 16:37
$begingroup$
I edited because I may have done an error in The computation of the residue. You can compute it by finding $a_{-1}$ where $sum_{-infty}^infty a_n (z-a)^n$ is Laurent expansion of $f$ at $a$.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 2 at 16:51
$begingroup$
I see. I'm struggling with that too a bit, but from what I've done so far, I don't think the series is going to have any negative terms ?
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint
I would suggest to use Residue theorem here. This theorem is a consequence of Cauchy’s formula.
For a radius $r > vert a vert$, you get
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz =2ipi left(frac{1}{e^{1/a}}+mbox{Res}(f,a)right)$$
$endgroup$
Hint
I would suggest to use Residue theorem here. This theorem is a consequence of Cauchy’s formula.
For a radius $r > vert a vert$, you get
$$oint_{L}{frac{e^{frac{1}{z-a}}}{z}}dz =2ipi left(frac{1}{e^{1/a}}+mbox{Res}(f,a)right)$$
edited Jan 2 at 16:47
answered Jan 2 at 16:27
mathcounterexamples.netmathcounterexamples.net
27k22157
27k22157
$begingroup$
Yes, I tried to, but I'm not sure how to get $Res(f,a)$ to be equal $frac{1}{a}$.
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 16:37
$begingroup$
I edited because I may have done an error in The computation of the residue. You can compute it by finding $a_{-1}$ where $sum_{-infty}^infty a_n (z-a)^n$ is Laurent expansion of $f$ at $a$.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 2 at 16:51
$begingroup$
I see. I'm struggling with that too a bit, but from what I've done so far, I don't think the series is going to have any negative terms ?
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes, I tried to, but I'm not sure how to get $Res(f,a)$ to be equal $frac{1}{a}$.
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 16:37
$begingroup$
I edited because I may have done an error in The computation of the residue. You can compute it by finding $a_{-1}$ where $sum_{-infty}^infty a_n (z-a)^n$ is Laurent expansion of $f$ at $a$.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 2 at 16:51
$begingroup$
I see. I'm struggling with that too a bit, but from what I've done so far, I don't think the series is going to have any negative terms ?
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 17:07
$begingroup$
Yes, I tried to, but I'm not sure how to get $Res(f,a)$ to be equal $frac{1}{a}$.
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 16:37
$begingroup$
Yes, I tried to, but I'm not sure how to get $Res(f,a)$ to be equal $frac{1}{a}$.
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 16:37
$begingroup$
I edited because I may have done an error in The computation of the residue. You can compute it by finding $a_{-1}$ where $sum_{-infty}^infty a_n (z-a)^n$ is Laurent expansion of $f$ at $a$.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 2 at 16:51
$begingroup$
I edited because I may have done an error in The computation of the residue. You can compute it by finding $a_{-1}$ where $sum_{-infty}^infty a_n (z-a)^n$ is Laurent expansion of $f$ at $a$.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 2 at 16:51
$begingroup$
I see. I'm struggling with that too a bit, but from what I've done so far, I don't think the series is going to have any negative terms ?
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 17:07
$begingroup$
I see. I'm struggling with that too a bit, but from what I've done so far, I don't think the series is going to have any negative terms ?
$endgroup$
– math101
Jan 2 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
See this answer. Instead of taking the residue at $z = a$, take the residue at $z = infty$, which is the value of $-e^{1/(z - a)}$ at $z = infty$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is the better approach.
$endgroup$
– Szeto
Jan 3 at 13:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
See this answer. Instead of taking the residue at $z = a$, take the residue at $z = infty$, which is the value of $-e^{1/(z - a)}$ at $z = infty$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is the better approach.
$endgroup$
– Szeto
Jan 3 at 13:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
See this answer. Instead of taking the residue at $z = a$, take the residue at $z = infty$, which is the value of $-e^{1/(z - a)}$ at $z = infty$.
$endgroup$
See this answer. Instead of taking the residue at $z = a$, take the residue at $z = infty$, which is the value of $-e^{1/(z - a)}$ at $z = infty$.
answered Jan 3 at 1:34
MaximMaxim
5,7631220
5,7631220
$begingroup$
This is the better approach.
$endgroup$
– Szeto
Jan 3 at 13:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is the better approach.
$endgroup$
– Szeto
Jan 3 at 13:32
$begingroup$
This is the better approach.
$endgroup$
– Szeto
Jan 3 at 13:32
$begingroup$
This is the better approach.
$endgroup$
– Szeto
Jan 3 at 13:32
add a comment |
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