For a convex function $f$, is the following set convex: $X := {x ∶ -f(x) leq 1 }$? [on hold]











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For a convex function $f$, is the following set convex: $X := {x ∶ -f(x) leq 1 }$?




I know that the set $X := {x ∶ f(x) leq 1}$ is convex, but I'm unsure about the $-f(x)$ in the first set.










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put on hold as off-topic by GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, user302797, Rebellos, José Carlos Santos, user10354138 12 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, user302797, Rebellos, José Carlos Santos, user10354138

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

















    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite













    For a convex function $f$, is the following set convex: $X := {x ∶ -f(x) leq 1 }$?




    I know that the set $X := {x ∶ f(x) leq 1}$ is convex, but I'm unsure about the $-f(x)$ in the first set.










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    Vuro H is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.











    put on hold as off-topic by GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, user302797, Rebellos, José Carlos Santos, user10354138 12 hours ago


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, user302797, Rebellos, José Carlos Santos, user10354138

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite












      For a convex function $f$, is the following set convex: $X := {x ∶ -f(x) leq 1 }$?




      I know that the set $X := {x ∶ f(x) leq 1}$ is convex, but I'm unsure about the $-f(x)$ in the first set.










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Vuro H is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.












      For a convex function $f$, is the following set convex: $X := {x ∶ -f(x) leq 1 }$?




      I know that the set $X := {x ∶ f(x) leq 1}$ is convex, but I'm unsure about the $-f(x)$ in the first set.







      convex-analysis convex-optimization smooth-functions






      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Vuro H is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Vuro H is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 18 hours ago









      Brahadeesh

      5,78441957




      5,78441957






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      asked 19 hours ago









      Vuro H

      1




      1




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      New contributor





      Vuro H is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      Vuro H is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.




      put on hold as off-topic by GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, user302797, Rebellos, José Carlos Santos, user10354138 12 hours ago


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, user302797, Rebellos, José Carlos Santos, user10354138

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




      put on hold as off-topic by GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, user302797, Rebellos, José Carlos Santos, user10354138 12 hours ago


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, user302797, Rebellos, José Carlos Santos, user10354138

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
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          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Not necessarily. Consider $f(x) = x^2 - 2$. This set would be ${x : 2 - x^2 leq 1}$, i.e. ${x : x^2 geq 1 }.$ But this set is not convex; for example, $-1$ and $1$ are both in the set, yet $frac{1}{2} (-1) + frac{1}{2} (1) = 0$ is not.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • can you please provide a proof for $f$ being convex. I am unable to prove that $f(ax+(1-a)y)le a f(x)+(1-a)f(y)$ according as Wiki.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago












          • You should be able to prove that $x^2$ is convex. Translating a function will not change this. Alternatively, you can use the alternative definition: $f(x)$ is twice-differentiable and its second derivative is always positive, so $f(x)$ is convex.
            – platty
            18 hours ago










          • Oh! yes, thanks for the tip. I forgot the second definition.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago










          • Twice differentiability is a criterion, not a definition. There are non differentiable convex functions.
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            18 hours ago










          • Right; if I'm being precise, I should specify that, if $f$ is twice-differentiable, then the second derivative being positive is equivalent to being convex. Since this holds here, this suffices as proof.
            – platty
            18 hours ago


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Not necessarily. Consider $f(x) = x^2 - 2$. This set would be ${x : 2 - x^2 leq 1}$, i.e. ${x : x^2 geq 1 }.$ But this set is not convex; for example, $-1$ and $1$ are both in the set, yet $frac{1}{2} (-1) + frac{1}{2} (1) = 0$ is not.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • can you please provide a proof for $f$ being convex. I am unable to prove that $f(ax+(1-a)y)le a f(x)+(1-a)f(y)$ according as Wiki.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago












          • You should be able to prove that $x^2$ is convex. Translating a function will not change this. Alternatively, you can use the alternative definition: $f(x)$ is twice-differentiable and its second derivative is always positive, so $f(x)$ is convex.
            – platty
            18 hours ago










          • Oh! yes, thanks for the tip. I forgot the second definition.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago










          • Twice differentiability is a criterion, not a definition. There are non differentiable convex functions.
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            18 hours ago










          • Right; if I'm being precise, I should specify that, if $f$ is twice-differentiable, then the second derivative being positive is equivalent to being convex. Since this holds here, this suffices as proof.
            – platty
            18 hours ago















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Not necessarily. Consider $f(x) = x^2 - 2$. This set would be ${x : 2 - x^2 leq 1}$, i.e. ${x : x^2 geq 1 }.$ But this set is not convex; for example, $-1$ and $1$ are both in the set, yet $frac{1}{2} (-1) + frac{1}{2} (1) = 0$ is not.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • can you please provide a proof for $f$ being convex. I am unable to prove that $f(ax+(1-a)y)le a f(x)+(1-a)f(y)$ according as Wiki.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago












          • You should be able to prove that $x^2$ is convex. Translating a function will not change this. Alternatively, you can use the alternative definition: $f(x)$ is twice-differentiable and its second derivative is always positive, so $f(x)$ is convex.
            – platty
            18 hours ago










          • Oh! yes, thanks for the tip. I forgot the second definition.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago










          • Twice differentiability is a criterion, not a definition. There are non differentiable convex functions.
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            18 hours ago










          • Right; if I'm being precise, I should specify that, if $f$ is twice-differentiable, then the second derivative being positive is equivalent to being convex. Since this holds here, this suffices as proof.
            – platty
            18 hours ago













          up vote
          3
          down vote










          up vote
          3
          down vote









          Not necessarily. Consider $f(x) = x^2 - 2$. This set would be ${x : 2 - x^2 leq 1}$, i.e. ${x : x^2 geq 1 }.$ But this set is not convex; for example, $-1$ and $1$ are both in the set, yet $frac{1}{2} (-1) + frac{1}{2} (1) = 0$ is not.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Not necessarily. Consider $f(x) = x^2 - 2$. This set would be ${x : 2 - x^2 leq 1}$, i.e. ${x : x^2 geq 1 }.$ But this set is not convex; for example, $-1$ and $1$ are both in the set, yet $frac{1}{2} (-1) + frac{1}{2} (1) = 0$ is not.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 18 hours ago









          platty

          2,323215




          2,323215












          • can you please provide a proof for $f$ being convex. I am unable to prove that $f(ax+(1-a)y)le a f(x)+(1-a)f(y)$ according as Wiki.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago












          • You should be able to prove that $x^2$ is convex. Translating a function will not change this. Alternatively, you can use the alternative definition: $f(x)$ is twice-differentiable and its second derivative is always positive, so $f(x)$ is convex.
            – platty
            18 hours ago










          • Oh! yes, thanks for the tip. I forgot the second definition.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago










          • Twice differentiability is a criterion, not a definition. There are non differentiable convex functions.
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            18 hours ago










          • Right; if I'm being precise, I should specify that, if $f$ is twice-differentiable, then the second derivative being positive is equivalent to being convex. Since this holds here, this suffices as proof.
            – platty
            18 hours ago


















          • can you please provide a proof for $f$ being convex. I am unable to prove that $f(ax+(1-a)y)le a f(x)+(1-a)f(y)$ according as Wiki.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago












          • You should be able to prove that $x^2$ is convex. Translating a function will not change this. Alternatively, you can use the alternative definition: $f(x)$ is twice-differentiable and its second derivative is always positive, so $f(x)$ is convex.
            – platty
            18 hours ago










          • Oh! yes, thanks for the tip. I forgot the second definition.
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            18 hours ago










          • Twice differentiability is a criterion, not a definition. There are non differentiable convex functions.
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            18 hours ago










          • Right; if I'm being precise, I should specify that, if $f$ is twice-differentiable, then the second derivative being positive is equivalent to being convex. Since this holds here, this suffices as proof.
            – platty
            18 hours ago
















          can you please provide a proof for $f$ being convex. I am unable to prove that $f(ax+(1-a)y)le a f(x)+(1-a)f(y)$ according as Wiki.
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          18 hours ago






          can you please provide a proof for $f$ being convex. I am unable to prove that $f(ax+(1-a)y)le a f(x)+(1-a)f(y)$ according as Wiki.
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          18 hours ago














          You should be able to prove that $x^2$ is convex. Translating a function will not change this. Alternatively, you can use the alternative definition: $f(x)$ is twice-differentiable and its second derivative is always positive, so $f(x)$ is convex.
          – platty
          18 hours ago




          You should be able to prove that $x^2$ is convex. Translating a function will not change this. Alternatively, you can use the alternative definition: $f(x)$ is twice-differentiable and its second derivative is always positive, so $f(x)$ is convex.
          – platty
          18 hours ago












          Oh! yes, thanks for the tip. I forgot the second definition.
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          18 hours ago




          Oh! yes, thanks for the tip. I forgot the second definition.
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          18 hours ago












          Twice differentiability is a criterion, not a definition. There are non differentiable convex functions.
          – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
          18 hours ago




          Twice differentiability is a criterion, not a definition. There are non differentiable convex functions.
          – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
          18 hours ago












          Right; if I'm being precise, I should specify that, if $f$ is twice-differentiable, then the second derivative being positive is equivalent to being convex. Since this holds here, this suffices as proof.
          – platty
          18 hours ago




          Right; if I'm being precise, I should specify that, if $f$ is twice-differentiable, then the second derivative being positive is equivalent to being convex. Since this holds here, this suffices as proof.
          – platty
          18 hours ago



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