image of some ideal under the quotient map












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enter image description here!
I am still confused about the range of $sigma(I_{omega})$.Since $|x_n|_2to 0,$we have $|x_n|to 0$,$sigma(I_{omega})=0,$then $J=0$,it is trivial.



Is my understanding correct?enter image description here










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    enter image description here!
    I am still confused about the range of $sigma(I_{omega})$.Since $|x_n|_2to 0,$we have $|x_n|to 0$,$sigma(I_{omega})=0,$then $J=0$,it is trivial.



    Is my understanding correct?enter image description here










    share|cite|improve this question

























      1












      1








      1







      enter image description here!
      I am still confused about the range of $sigma(I_{omega})$.Since $|x_n|_2to 0,$we have $|x_n|to 0$,$sigma(I_{omega})=0,$then $J=0$,it is trivial.



      Is my understanding correct?enter image description here










      share|cite|improve this question













      enter image description here!
      I am still confused about the range of $sigma(I_{omega})$.Since $|x_n|_2to 0,$we have $|x_n|to 0$,$sigma(I_{omega})=0,$then $J=0$,it is trivial.



      Is my understanding correct?enter image description here







      operator-theory operator-algebras c-star-algebras von-neumann-algebras






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      asked Dec 7 at 16:16









      mathrookie

      800512




      800512






















          1 Answer
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          No, it is not true that if $|x_n|_2to0$, then $|x_n|to0$.



          For instance, suppose that $k(n)=n$, $x_n=E_{11}$ for all $n$. Then $|x_n|_2=1/sqrt n$, while $|x_n|=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Your example is right.But we have the inequlity $|x|leq |x|_2$.I am quite puzzeld.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 17:36












          • No, you don't. You are mixing the normalized and non-normalized cases.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 17:42










          • Suppose $Tin K(H)$, is the 2–norm of $T$ defined as follows:$|T|_2=(sum_{ein E}|Te|^2)^frac{1}{2}$,where $E$ is an orthonormal basis of H?
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 18:46












          • Yes, and $|T|_2=infty$ if $T$ is not Hilbert-Schmidt.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 19:00










          • So the inequality $|x|leq|x|_2$ holds when in the non-normalized case.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 8 at 9:44











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          1














          No, it is not true that if $|x_n|_2to0$, then $|x_n|to0$.



          For instance, suppose that $k(n)=n$, $x_n=E_{11}$ for all $n$. Then $|x_n|_2=1/sqrt n$, while $|x_n|=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Your example is right.But we have the inequlity $|x|leq |x|_2$.I am quite puzzeld.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 17:36












          • No, you don't. You are mixing the normalized and non-normalized cases.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 17:42










          • Suppose $Tin K(H)$, is the 2–norm of $T$ defined as follows:$|T|_2=(sum_{ein E}|Te|^2)^frac{1}{2}$,where $E$ is an orthonormal basis of H?
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 18:46












          • Yes, and $|T|_2=infty$ if $T$ is not Hilbert-Schmidt.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 19:00










          • So the inequality $|x|leq|x|_2$ holds when in the non-normalized case.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 8 at 9:44
















          1














          No, it is not true that if $|x_n|_2to0$, then $|x_n|to0$.



          For instance, suppose that $k(n)=n$, $x_n=E_{11}$ for all $n$. Then $|x_n|_2=1/sqrt n$, while $|x_n|=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Your example is right.But we have the inequlity $|x|leq |x|_2$.I am quite puzzeld.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 17:36












          • No, you don't. You are mixing the normalized and non-normalized cases.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 17:42










          • Suppose $Tin K(H)$, is the 2–norm of $T$ defined as follows:$|T|_2=(sum_{ein E}|Te|^2)^frac{1}{2}$,where $E$ is an orthonormal basis of H?
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 18:46












          • Yes, and $|T|_2=infty$ if $T$ is not Hilbert-Schmidt.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 19:00










          • So the inequality $|x|leq|x|_2$ holds when in the non-normalized case.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 8 at 9:44














          1












          1








          1






          No, it is not true that if $|x_n|_2to0$, then $|x_n|to0$.



          For instance, suppose that $k(n)=n$, $x_n=E_{11}$ for all $n$. Then $|x_n|_2=1/sqrt n$, while $|x_n|=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          No, it is not true that if $|x_n|_2to0$, then $|x_n|to0$.



          For instance, suppose that $k(n)=n$, $x_n=E_{11}$ for all $n$. Then $|x_n|_2=1/sqrt n$, while $|x_n|=1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 7 at 17:26









          Martin Argerami

          123k1176174




          123k1176174












          • Your example is right.But we have the inequlity $|x|leq |x|_2$.I am quite puzzeld.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 17:36












          • No, you don't. You are mixing the normalized and non-normalized cases.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 17:42










          • Suppose $Tin K(H)$, is the 2–norm of $T$ defined as follows:$|T|_2=(sum_{ein E}|Te|^2)^frac{1}{2}$,where $E$ is an orthonormal basis of H?
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 18:46












          • Yes, and $|T|_2=infty$ if $T$ is not Hilbert-Schmidt.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 19:00










          • So the inequality $|x|leq|x|_2$ holds when in the non-normalized case.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 8 at 9:44


















          • Your example is right.But we have the inequlity $|x|leq |x|_2$.I am quite puzzeld.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 17:36












          • No, you don't. You are mixing the normalized and non-normalized cases.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 17:42










          • Suppose $Tin K(H)$, is the 2–norm of $T$ defined as follows:$|T|_2=(sum_{ein E}|Te|^2)^frac{1}{2}$,where $E$ is an orthonormal basis of H?
            – mathrookie
            Dec 7 at 18:46












          • Yes, and $|T|_2=infty$ if $T$ is not Hilbert-Schmidt.
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 7 at 19:00










          • So the inequality $|x|leq|x|_2$ holds when in the non-normalized case.
            – mathrookie
            Dec 8 at 9:44
















          Your example is right.But we have the inequlity $|x|leq |x|_2$.I am quite puzzeld.
          – mathrookie
          Dec 7 at 17:36






          Your example is right.But we have the inequlity $|x|leq |x|_2$.I am quite puzzeld.
          – mathrookie
          Dec 7 at 17:36














          No, you don't. You are mixing the normalized and non-normalized cases.
          – Martin Argerami
          Dec 7 at 17:42




          No, you don't. You are mixing the normalized and non-normalized cases.
          – Martin Argerami
          Dec 7 at 17:42












          Suppose $Tin K(H)$, is the 2–norm of $T$ defined as follows:$|T|_2=(sum_{ein E}|Te|^2)^frac{1}{2}$,where $E$ is an orthonormal basis of H?
          – mathrookie
          Dec 7 at 18:46






          Suppose $Tin K(H)$, is the 2–norm of $T$ defined as follows:$|T|_2=(sum_{ein E}|Te|^2)^frac{1}{2}$,where $E$ is an orthonormal basis of H?
          – mathrookie
          Dec 7 at 18:46














          Yes, and $|T|_2=infty$ if $T$ is not Hilbert-Schmidt.
          – Martin Argerami
          Dec 7 at 19:00




          Yes, and $|T|_2=infty$ if $T$ is not Hilbert-Schmidt.
          – Martin Argerami
          Dec 7 at 19:00












          So the inequality $|x|leq|x|_2$ holds when in the non-normalized case.
          – mathrookie
          Dec 8 at 9:44




          So the inequality $|x|leq|x|_2$ holds when in the non-normalized case.
          – mathrookie
          Dec 8 at 9:44


















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