Why is the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m bijective with R^m itself?
Barden & Thomas write in An Introduction to Differentiable Manifolds that the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m is bijective with R^m?
Why is this the case? Can 0 be replaced by an arbitrary point p of R^m?
manifolds smooth-manifolds
add a comment |
Barden & Thomas write in An Introduction to Differentiable Manifolds that the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m is bijective with R^m?
Why is this the case? Can 0 be replaced by an arbitrary point p of R^m?
manifolds smooth-manifolds
What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
– Randall
Dec 7 at 16:14
add a comment |
Barden & Thomas write in An Introduction to Differentiable Manifolds that the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m is bijective with R^m?
Why is this the case? Can 0 be replaced by an arbitrary point p of R^m?
manifolds smooth-manifolds
Barden & Thomas write in An Introduction to Differentiable Manifolds that the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m is bijective with R^m?
Why is this the case? Can 0 be replaced by an arbitrary point p of R^m?
manifolds smooth-manifolds
manifolds smooth-manifolds
asked Dec 7 at 16:09
gen
3982421
3982421
What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
– Randall
Dec 7 at 16:14
add a comment |
What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
– Randall
Dec 7 at 16:14
What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
– Randall
Dec 7 at 16:14
What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
– Randall
Dec 7 at 16:14
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
Intuitively:
The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.
The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.
ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....
Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.
add a comment |
Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.
By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Intuitively:
The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.
The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.
ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....
Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.
add a comment |
Intuitively:
The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.
The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.
ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....
Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.
add a comment |
Intuitively:
The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.
The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.
ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....
Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.
Intuitively:
The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.
The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.
ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....
Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.
answered Dec 7 at 16:21
Emilio Novati
51.4k43472
51.4k43472
add a comment |
add a comment |
Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.
By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.
add a comment |
Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.
By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.
add a comment |
Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.
By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.
Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.
By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.
answered Dec 7 at 16:24
Chris Custer
10.6k3724
10.6k3724
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add a comment |
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What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
– Randall
Dec 7 at 16:14