Why is the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m bijective with R^m itself?












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Barden & Thomas write in An Introduction to Differentiable Manifolds that the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m is bijective with R^m?



Why is this the case? Can 0 be replaced by an arbitrary point p of R^m?










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  • What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
    – Randall
    Dec 7 at 16:14


















0














Barden & Thomas write in An Introduction to Differentiable Manifolds that the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m is bijective with R^m?



Why is this the case? Can 0 be replaced by an arbitrary point p of R^m?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
    – Randall
    Dec 7 at 16:14
















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0








0







Barden & Thomas write in An Introduction to Differentiable Manifolds that the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m is bijective with R^m?



Why is this the case? Can 0 be replaced by an arbitrary point p of R^m?










share|cite|improve this question













Barden & Thomas write in An Introduction to Differentiable Manifolds that the set of tangent vectors at 0 in R^m is bijective with R^m?



Why is this the case? Can 0 be replaced by an arbitrary point p of R^m?







manifolds smooth-manifolds






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asked Dec 7 at 16:09









gen

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  • What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
    – Randall
    Dec 7 at 16:14




















  • What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
    – Randall
    Dec 7 at 16:14


















What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
– Randall
Dec 7 at 16:14






What is your definition of tangent vector? There are several different definitions--all equivalent--but the answer you get depends on your particular definition.
– Randall
Dec 7 at 16:14












2 Answers
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Intuitively:



The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.



The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.



ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....



Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.






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    0














    Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.



    By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      0














      Intuitively:



      The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.



      The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.



      ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....



      Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        0














        Intuitively:



        The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.



        The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.



        ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....



        Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          0












          0








          0






          Intuitively:



          The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.



          The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.



          ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....



          Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Intuitively:



          The tangent vector space of a line ($mathbb{R^1}$) at a point of the line (that can be the origin) is the line itself.



          The tangent space of a plane($mathbb{R^2}$) is the plane itself.



          ans so for $mathbb{R^n}$.....



          Any formal definition of the tangent vector space of a variety conserve this intuition.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 7 at 16:21









          Emilio Novati

          51.4k43472




          51.4k43472























              0














              Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.



              By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                0














                Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.



                By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  0












                  0








                  0






                  Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.



                  By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Yes you can replace $0$ with any $pinmathbb R^m$.



                  By definition the tangent space, $T_pM$, is an $m$-dimensional vector space. But any two $m$-dimensional vector spaces are isomorphic.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 7 at 16:24









                  Chris Custer

                  10.6k3724




                  10.6k3724






























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