Proof of an integral inequality about a decreasing continuous function












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$f(x)$ is a continuous function on $[0,infty)$, and it is decreasing on its domain.



Then how to prove
$int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}ge3int_0^x{t^2f(t),dt}$ when $xge0$ ?



Maybe I can have $F(x)=int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}-3int_0^x{t^2f(t),dt}$ and work on its derivative, but what's the derivative of $int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}$? Can Fundamental Theorem of Calculus be used here? Or are there other ways to prove that?










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    1












    $begingroup$


    $f(x)$ is a continuous function on $[0,infty)$, and it is decreasing on its domain.



    Then how to prove
    $int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}ge3int_0^x{t^2f(t),dt}$ when $xge0$ ?



    Maybe I can have $F(x)=int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}-3int_0^x{t^2f(t),dt}$ and work on its derivative, but what's the derivative of $int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}$? Can Fundamental Theorem of Calculus be used here? Or are there other ways to prove that?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      $f(x)$ is a continuous function on $[0,infty)$, and it is decreasing on its domain.



      Then how to prove
      $int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}ge3int_0^x{t^2f(t),dt}$ when $xge0$ ?



      Maybe I can have $F(x)=int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}-3int_0^x{t^2f(t),dt}$ and work on its derivative, but what's the derivative of $int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}$? Can Fundamental Theorem of Calculus be used here? Or are there other ways to prove that?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      $f(x)$ is a continuous function on $[0,infty)$, and it is decreasing on its domain.



      Then how to prove
      $int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}ge3int_0^x{t^2f(t),dt}$ when $xge0$ ?



      Maybe I can have $F(x)=int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}-3int_0^x{t^2f(t),dt}$ and work on its derivative, but what's the derivative of $int_0^x{x^2f(t),dt}$? Can Fundamental Theorem of Calculus be used here? Or are there other ways to prove that?







      integration inequality






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      asked Dec 31 '18 at 10:52









      brokencupbrokencup

      61




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          3 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Your function $F$ is simply $F(x) = x^2 int_0^x f(t), dt - 3 int_0^x t^2 f(t), dt$.
          Since $f$ is continuous, you can differentiate $F$ obtaining
          $$
          F'(x) = 2x int_0^x f(t), dt + x^2 f(x) - 3 x^2 f(x).
          $$

          Since $f$ is decreasing, you have that $f(t) geq f(x)$ for every $tin[0,x]$, hence
          $$
          int_0^x f(t), dt geq x, f(x).
          $$

          You then obtain $F'(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$. Since $F(0) = 0$, you can conclude that $F(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            0












            $begingroup$

            Edit:(This solution only works if $f$ is differentiable and $f'g+g'f$ is continuos where g(t)=(t*x^2-t^3))



            Tip: Wirte the Integral as $int_0^x(x^2-3t^2)f(t)dt$ (if your inequality holds this has to be $geq 0$). Then use Partial integration. Since $f'leq 0$ the assertion follows.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$





















              0












              $begingroup$

              This inequality is about rearrangment. The following generalization is true. Assume that $g,hge 0$ are continuous and $int_0^t g(s)ds ge int_0^t h(s)ds$ for all $tle x$ and $int_0^x g(s)ds = int_0^x h(s)ds$, then it holds
              $$
              int_0^x g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^x h(s)f(s)ds.
              $$
              If $f'$ exists and is continuous, then the claim follows by integration by parts formula.



              Proof: We may assume $x=1$. Since $f$ is continuous, we can approximate $f$ uniformly by a step function of the form $$
              s_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})1_{[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}]}(x).
              $$
              Let $D(t) = int_0^t (g(s)-h(s))ds$. Then,
              $$
              int_0^1 (g(s)-h(s))s_n(s)ds = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})(D(frac{j}{n})-D(frac{j-1}{n}))=sum_{j=1}^n D(frac{j}{n})(f(frac{j}{n})-f(frac{j+1}{n}))ge 0.
              $$
              By taking $nto infty$, we get $$
              int_0^1 g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^1 h(s)f(s)ds.
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer











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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

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                active

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                active

                oldest

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                3












                $begingroup$

                Your function $F$ is simply $F(x) = x^2 int_0^x f(t), dt - 3 int_0^x t^2 f(t), dt$.
                Since $f$ is continuous, you can differentiate $F$ obtaining
                $$
                F'(x) = 2x int_0^x f(t), dt + x^2 f(x) - 3 x^2 f(x).
                $$

                Since $f$ is decreasing, you have that $f(t) geq f(x)$ for every $tin[0,x]$, hence
                $$
                int_0^x f(t), dt geq x, f(x).
                $$

                You then obtain $F'(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$. Since $F(0) = 0$, you can conclude that $F(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  3












                  $begingroup$

                  Your function $F$ is simply $F(x) = x^2 int_0^x f(t), dt - 3 int_0^x t^2 f(t), dt$.
                  Since $f$ is continuous, you can differentiate $F$ obtaining
                  $$
                  F'(x) = 2x int_0^x f(t), dt + x^2 f(x) - 3 x^2 f(x).
                  $$

                  Since $f$ is decreasing, you have that $f(t) geq f(x)$ for every $tin[0,x]$, hence
                  $$
                  int_0^x f(t), dt geq x, f(x).
                  $$

                  You then obtain $F'(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$. Since $F(0) = 0$, you can conclude that $F(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    3












                    3








                    3





                    $begingroup$

                    Your function $F$ is simply $F(x) = x^2 int_0^x f(t), dt - 3 int_0^x t^2 f(t), dt$.
                    Since $f$ is continuous, you can differentiate $F$ obtaining
                    $$
                    F'(x) = 2x int_0^x f(t), dt + x^2 f(x) - 3 x^2 f(x).
                    $$

                    Since $f$ is decreasing, you have that $f(t) geq f(x)$ for every $tin[0,x]$, hence
                    $$
                    int_0^x f(t), dt geq x, f(x).
                    $$

                    You then obtain $F'(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$. Since $F(0) = 0$, you can conclude that $F(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Your function $F$ is simply $F(x) = x^2 int_0^x f(t), dt - 3 int_0^x t^2 f(t), dt$.
                    Since $f$ is continuous, you can differentiate $F$ obtaining
                    $$
                    F'(x) = 2x int_0^x f(t), dt + x^2 f(x) - 3 x^2 f(x).
                    $$

                    Since $f$ is decreasing, you have that $f(t) geq f(x)$ for every $tin[0,x]$, hence
                    $$
                    int_0^x f(t), dt geq x, f(x).
                    $$

                    You then obtain $F'(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$. Since $F(0) = 0$, you can conclude that $F(x) geq 0$ for every $xgeq 0$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












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                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 31 '18 at 11:17









                    RigelRigel

                    11.3k11320




                    11.3k11320























                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Edit:(This solution only works if $f$ is differentiable and $f'g+g'f$ is continuos where g(t)=(t*x^2-t^3))



                        Tip: Wirte the Integral as $int_0^x(x^2-3t^2)f(t)dt$ (if your inequality holds this has to be $geq 0$). Then use Partial integration. Since $f'leq 0$ the assertion follows.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$


















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Edit:(This solution only works if $f$ is differentiable and $f'g+g'f$ is continuos where g(t)=(t*x^2-t^3))



                          Tip: Wirte the Integral as $int_0^x(x^2-3t^2)f(t)dt$ (if your inequality holds this has to be $geq 0$). Then use Partial integration. Since $f'leq 0$ the assertion follows.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$
















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Edit:(This solution only works if $f$ is differentiable and $f'g+g'f$ is continuos where g(t)=(t*x^2-t^3))



                            Tip: Wirte the Integral as $int_0^x(x^2-3t^2)f(t)dt$ (if your inequality holds this has to be $geq 0$). Then use Partial integration. Since $f'leq 0$ the assertion follows.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            Edit:(This solution only works if $f$ is differentiable and $f'g+g'f$ is continuos where g(t)=(t*x^2-t^3))



                            Tip: Wirte the Integral as $int_0^x(x^2-3t^2)f(t)dt$ (if your inequality holds this has to be $geq 0$). Then use Partial integration. Since $f'leq 0$ the assertion follows.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Dec 31 '18 at 11:34

























                            answered Dec 31 '18 at 11:10









                            A. PA. P

                            1085




                            1085























                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                This inequality is about rearrangment. The following generalization is true. Assume that $g,hge 0$ are continuous and $int_0^t g(s)ds ge int_0^t h(s)ds$ for all $tle x$ and $int_0^x g(s)ds = int_0^x h(s)ds$, then it holds
                                $$
                                int_0^x g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^x h(s)f(s)ds.
                                $$
                                If $f'$ exists and is continuous, then the claim follows by integration by parts formula.



                                Proof: We may assume $x=1$. Since $f$ is continuous, we can approximate $f$ uniformly by a step function of the form $$
                                s_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})1_{[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}]}(x).
                                $$
                                Let $D(t) = int_0^t (g(s)-h(s))ds$. Then,
                                $$
                                int_0^1 (g(s)-h(s))s_n(s)ds = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})(D(frac{j}{n})-D(frac{j-1}{n}))=sum_{j=1}^n D(frac{j}{n})(f(frac{j}{n})-f(frac{j+1}{n}))ge 0.
                                $$
                                By taking $nto infty$, we get $$
                                int_0^1 g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^1 h(s)f(s)ds.
                                $$






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$


















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  This inequality is about rearrangment. The following generalization is true. Assume that $g,hge 0$ are continuous and $int_0^t g(s)ds ge int_0^t h(s)ds$ for all $tle x$ and $int_0^x g(s)ds = int_0^x h(s)ds$, then it holds
                                  $$
                                  int_0^x g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^x h(s)f(s)ds.
                                  $$
                                  If $f'$ exists and is continuous, then the claim follows by integration by parts formula.



                                  Proof: We may assume $x=1$. Since $f$ is continuous, we can approximate $f$ uniformly by a step function of the form $$
                                  s_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})1_{[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}]}(x).
                                  $$
                                  Let $D(t) = int_0^t (g(s)-h(s))ds$. Then,
                                  $$
                                  int_0^1 (g(s)-h(s))s_n(s)ds = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})(D(frac{j}{n})-D(frac{j-1}{n}))=sum_{j=1}^n D(frac{j}{n})(f(frac{j}{n})-f(frac{j+1}{n}))ge 0.
                                  $$
                                  By taking $nto infty$, we get $$
                                  int_0^1 g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^1 h(s)f(s)ds.
                                  $$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$
















                                    0












                                    0








                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    This inequality is about rearrangment. The following generalization is true. Assume that $g,hge 0$ are continuous and $int_0^t g(s)ds ge int_0^t h(s)ds$ for all $tle x$ and $int_0^x g(s)ds = int_0^x h(s)ds$, then it holds
                                    $$
                                    int_0^x g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^x h(s)f(s)ds.
                                    $$
                                    If $f'$ exists and is continuous, then the claim follows by integration by parts formula.



                                    Proof: We may assume $x=1$. Since $f$ is continuous, we can approximate $f$ uniformly by a step function of the form $$
                                    s_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})1_{[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}]}(x).
                                    $$
                                    Let $D(t) = int_0^t (g(s)-h(s))ds$. Then,
                                    $$
                                    int_0^1 (g(s)-h(s))s_n(s)ds = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})(D(frac{j}{n})-D(frac{j-1}{n}))=sum_{j=1}^n D(frac{j}{n})(f(frac{j}{n})-f(frac{j+1}{n}))ge 0.
                                    $$
                                    By taking $nto infty$, we get $$
                                    int_0^1 g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^1 h(s)f(s)ds.
                                    $$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$



                                    This inequality is about rearrangment. The following generalization is true. Assume that $g,hge 0$ are continuous and $int_0^t g(s)ds ge int_0^t h(s)ds$ for all $tle x$ and $int_0^x g(s)ds = int_0^x h(s)ds$, then it holds
                                    $$
                                    int_0^x g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^x h(s)f(s)ds.
                                    $$
                                    If $f'$ exists and is continuous, then the claim follows by integration by parts formula.



                                    Proof: We may assume $x=1$. Since $f$ is continuous, we can approximate $f$ uniformly by a step function of the form $$
                                    s_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})1_{[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}]}(x).
                                    $$
                                    Let $D(t) = int_0^t (g(s)-h(s))ds$. Then,
                                    $$
                                    int_0^1 (g(s)-h(s))s_n(s)ds = sum_{j=1}^n f(frac{j}{n})(D(frac{j}{n})-D(frac{j-1}{n}))=sum_{j=1}^n D(frac{j}{n})(f(frac{j}{n})-f(frac{j+1}{n}))ge 0.
                                    $$
                                    By taking $nto infty$, we get $$
                                    int_0^1 g(s)f(s)dsge int_0^1 h(s)f(s)ds.
                                    $$







                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer








                                    edited Dec 31 '18 at 11:56

























                                    answered Dec 31 '18 at 11:20









                                    SongSong

                                    15.9k1739




                                    15.9k1739






























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