Can the fix point set of a nontrivial irreducible complex representation of a finite odd order group be non...












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I'm trying to show that if $G$ is a finite odd order group then, all of its nontrivial complex representations are of complex type (i.e., it is not realisable over the reals).



(I have answered it here: If $G$ is a finite non-trivial group of odd order, it has an irreducible representation not realisable over the reals.)



Let $V$ be such a representation, and let $V^G:={vin V: gv=v, forall g in G}$ be its fix point set. Using some theorems in Bröcker's book about Representations of Compact Lie Groups, I can solve this problem if I show that $V^G=0$. Is that true?










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    $begingroup$
    Well, what about the trivial representation?
    $endgroup$
    – Matt Samuel
    Jan 14 at 0:11










  • $begingroup$
    It should be a non-trivial representation*, I'll change @MattSamuel
    $endgroup$
    – Andre Gomes
    Jan 14 at 0:12












  • $begingroup$
    I have answered the first question here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1033844/…
    $endgroup$
    – Andre Gomes
    Jan 14 at 17:24
















1












$begingroup$


I'm trying to show that if $G$ is a finite odd order group then, all of its nontrivial complex representations are of complex type (i.e., it is not realisable over the reals).



(I have answered it here: If $G$ is a finite non-trivial group of odd order, it has an irreducible representation not realisable over the reals.)



Let $V$ be such a representation, and let $V^G:={vin V: gv=v, forall g in G}$ be its fix point set. Using some theorems in Bröcker's book about Representations of Compact Lie Groups, I can solve this problem if I show that $V^G=0$. Is that true?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Well, what about the trivial representation?
    $endgroup$
    – Matt Samuel
    Jan 14 at 0:11










  • $begingroup$
    It should be a non-trivial representation*, I'll change @MattSamuel
    $endgroup$
    – Andre Gomes
    Jan 14 at 0:12












  • $begingroup$
    I have answered the first question here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1033844/…
    $endgroup$
    – Andre Gomes
    Jan 14 at 17:24














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


I'm trying to show that if $G$ is a finite odd order group then, all of its nontrivial complex representations are of complex type (i.e., it is not realisable over the reals).



(I have answered it here: If $G$ is a finite non-trivial group of odd order, it has an irreducible representation not realisable over the reals.)



Let $V$ be such a representation, and let $V^G:={vin V: gv=v, forall g in G}$ be its fix point set. Using some theorems in Bröcker's book about Representations of Compact Lie Groups, I can solve this problem if I show that $V^G=0$. Is that true?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm trying to show that if $G$ is a finite odd order group then, all of its nontrivial complex representations are of complex type (i.e., it is not realisable over the reals).



(I have answered it here: If $G$ is a finite non-trivial group of odd order, it has an irreducible representation not realisable over the reals.)



Let $V$ be such a representation, and let $V^G:={vin V: gv=v, forall g in G}$ be its fix point set. Using some theorems in Bröcker's book about Representations of Compact Lie Groups, I can solve this problem if I show that $V^G=0$. Is that true?







finite-groups representation-theory






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edited Jan 14 at 17:25







Andre Gomes

















asked Jan 14 at 0:08









Andre GomesAndre Gomes

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920516








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Well, what about the trivial representation?
    $endgroup$
    – Matt Samuel
    Jan 14 at 0:11










  • $begingroup$
    It should be a non-trivial representation*, I'll change @MattSamuel
    $endgroup$
    – Andre Gomes
    Jan 14 at 0:12












  • $begingroup$
    I have answered the first question here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1033844/…
    $endgroup$
    – Andre Gomes
    Jan 14 at 17:24














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Well, what about the trivial representation?
    $endgroup$
    – Matt Samuel
    Jan 14 at 0:11










  • $begingroup$
    It should be a non-trivial representation*, I'll change @MattSamuel
    $endgroup$
    – Andre Gomes
    Jan 14 at 0:12












  • $begingroup$
    I have answered the first question here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1033844/…
    $endgroup$
    – Andre Gomes
    Jan 14 at 17:24








1




1




$begingroup$
Well, what about the trivial representation?
$endgroup$
– Matt Samuel
Jan 14 at 0:11




$begingroup$
Well, what about the trivial representation?
$endgroup$
– Matt Samuel
Jan 14 at 0:11












$begingroup$
It should be a non-trivial representation*, I'll change @MattSamuel
$endgroup$
– Andre Gomes
Jan 14 at 0:12






$begingroup$
It should be a non-trivial representation*, I'll change @MattSamuel
$endgroup$
– Andre Gomes
Jan 14 at 0:12














$begingroup$
I have answered the first question here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1033844/…
$endgroup$
– Andre Gomes
Jan 14 at 17:24




$begingroup$
I have answered the first question here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1033844/…
$endgroup$
– Andre Gomes
Jan 14 at 17:24










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Any nonzero vector $vin V^G$ spans a $1$-dimensional trivial sub-representation. If $V$ is irreducible of dimension $>1$, then it follows that $V^G=0$. If $dim V=1$, then $V^Gneq 0$ implies $V$ is the trivial representation.






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    $begingroup$

    Any nonzero vector $vin V^G$ spans a $1$-dimensional trivial sub-representation. If $V$ is irreducible of dimension $>1$, then it follows that $V^G=0$. If $dim V=1$, then $V^Gneq 0$ implies $V$ is the trivial representation.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Any nonzero vector $vin V^G$ spans a $1$-dimensional trivial sub-representation. If $V$ is irreducible of dimension $>1$, then it follows that $V^G=0$. If $dim V=1$, then $V^Gneq 0$ implies $V$ is the trivial representation.






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        1





        $begingroup$

        Any nonzero vector $vin V^G$ spans a $1$-dimensional trivial sub-representation. If $V$ is irreducible of dimension $>1$, then it follows that $V^G=0$. If $dim V=1$, then $V^Gneq 0$ implies $V$ is the trivial representation.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Any nonzero vector $vin V^G$ spans a $1$-dimensional trivial sub-representation. If $V$ is irreducible of dimension $>1$, then it follows that $V^G=0$. If $dim V=1$, then $V^Gneq 0$ implies $V$ is the trivial representation.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 14 at 16:30









        David HillDavid Hill

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        9,6561619






























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