Elementary Number Theory Divisibility Question












0












$begingroup$


Let $a, b, c in mathbb Z$. I know that if $c|a$ and $c|b$, then $c|a pm b$. I was working on some elementary number theory and I began to wonder if the following were true:$$text{if }c|a text{ and } c|a+b text{, then } c|b$$





I managed a very simple proof:



Suppose $c|a$ and $c|a+b$. It follows that $a=c cdot d$ and $a+b=c cdot d'$, where $d, d' in mathbb Z$. Note that if $a=c cdot d$, then $c cdot d +b=c cdot d'$. Hence $b=c cdot d' -c cdot d$, or $b=c(d-d')$. Letting $d''=d-d' in mathbb Z$, we have $b=c cdot d''$, or $c|b$, as desired.





However, while trying to prove this the good ol' fashioned way (using propositional logic), I'm hitting a barrier that has me second-guessing if my above proof is correct or not. For the life of me, I cannot fathom how $$(P land Q) Rightarrow R equiv (P land R) Rightarrow Q$$
for $P:=c|a$, $Q:=c|b$ and $R:=c|a+b$.



Sorry for the silly question. My propositional logic is a little rusty and I'm probably just overlooking something. Any insight would be greatly appreciated!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    You can't prove this from propositional logic alone, because the proof requires the semantics of what you are trying to prove (the meaning of the statements). This is not a tautology. The proposition $(Pwedge Q)Rightarrow R$ is not equivalent to the proposition $(Pwedge R)Rightarrow Q$. The former is true when $P$ and $R$ are true and $Q$ false, but the latter is false in that case.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 14 at 23:14






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    So the question is not about elementary number theory. Of course, $cmid a$ and $cmid a+b$ imply $cmid b$. Your proof is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 14 at 23:14








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your proof is correct, but it is really much better to avoid writing so many letters if possible. You could simply write $b=(a+b)-a$ and use the part which as you wrote in the beginning you already know.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    Jan 14 at 23:16










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you guys for the response. The proof 'felt' correct, but it seemed strange to me that I've never come across that property before (simple although it may be). That's why I decided to delve deeper using propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:23
















0












$begingroup$


Let $a, b, c in mathbb Z$. I know that if $c|a$ and $c|b$, then $c|a pm b$. I was working on some elementary number theory and I began to wonder if the following were true:$$text{if }c|a text{ and } c|a+b text{, then } c|b$$





I managed a very simple proof:



Suppose $c|a$ and $c|a+b$. It follows that $a=c cdot d$ and $a+b=c cdot d'$, where $d, d' in mathbb Z$. Note that if $a=c cdot d$, then $c cdot d +b=c cdot d'$. Hence $b=c cdot d' -c cdot d$, or $b=c(d-d')$. Letting $d''=d-d' in mathbb Z$, we have $b=c cdot d''$, or $c|b$, as desired.





However, while trying to prove this the good ol' fashioned way (using propositional logic), I'm hitting a barrier that has me second-guessing if my above proof is correct or not. For the life of me, I cannot fathom how $$(P land Q) Rightarrow R equiv (P land R) Rightarrow Q$$
for $P:=c|a$, $Q:=c|b$ and $R:=c|a+b$.



Sorry for the silly question. My propositional logic is a little rusty and I'm probably just overlooking something. Any insight would be greatly appreciated!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    You can't prove this from propositional logic alone, because the proof requires the semantics of what you are trying to prove (the meaning of the statements). This is not a tautology. The proposition $(Pwedge Q)Rightarrow R$ is not equivalent to the proposition $(Pwedge R)Rightarrow Q$. The former is true when $P$ and $R$ are true and $Q$ false, but the latter is false in that case.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 14 at 23:14






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    So the question is not about elementary number theory. Of course, $cmid a$ and $cmid a+b$ imply $cmid b$. Your proof is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 14 at 23:14








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your proof is correct, but it is really much better to avoid writing so many letters if possible. You could simply write $b=(a+b)-a$ and use the part which as you wrote in the beginning you already know.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    Jan 14 at 23:16










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you guys for the response. The proof 'felt' correct, but it seemed strange to me that I've never come across that property before (simple although it may be). That's why I decided to delve deeper using propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:23














0












0








0


0



$begingroup$


Let $a, b, c in mathbb Z$. I know that if $c|a$ and $c|b$, then $c|a pm b$. I was working on some elementary number theory and I began to wonder if the following were true:$$text{if }c|a text{ and } c|a+b text{, then } c|b$$





I managed a very simple proof:



Suppose $c|a$ and $c|a+b$. It follows that $a=c cdot d$ and $a+b=c cdot d'$, where $d, d' in mathbb Z$. Note that if $a=c cdot d$, then $c cdot d +b=c cdot d'$. Hence $b=c cdot d' -c cdot d$, or $b=c(d-d')$. Letting $d''=d-d' in mathbb Z$, we have $b=c cdot d''$, or $c|b$, as desired.





However, while trying to prove this the good ol' fashioned way (using propositional logic), I'm hitting a barrier that has me second-guessing if my above proof is correct or not. For the life of me, I cannot fathom how $$(P land Q) Rightarrow R equiv (P land R) Rightarrow Q$$
for $P:=c|a$, $Q:=c|b$ and $R:=c|a+b$.



Sorry for the silly question. My propositional logic is a little rusty and I'm probably just overlooking something. Any insight would be greatly appreciated!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $a, b, c in mathbb Z$. I know that if $c|a$ and $c|b$, then $c|a pm b$. I was working on some elementary number theory and I began to wonder if the following were true:$$text{if }c|a text{ and } c|a+b text{, then } c|b$$





I managed a very simple proof:



Suppose $c|a$ and $c|a+b$. It follows that $a=c cdot d$ and $a+b=c cdot d'$, where $d, d' in mathbb Z$. Note that if $a=c cdot d$, then $c cdot d +b=c cdot d'$. Hence $b=c cdot d' -c cdot d$, or $b=c(d-d')$. Letting $d''=d-d' in mathbb Z$, we have $b=c cdot d''$, or $c|b$, as desired.





However, while trying to prove this the good ol' fashioned way (using propositional logic), I'm hitting a barrier that has me second-guessing if my above proof is correct or not. For the life of me, I cannot fathom how $$(P land Q) Rightarrow R equiv (P land R) Rightarrow Q$$
for $P:=c|a$, $Q:=c|b$ and $R:=c|a+b$.



Sorry for the silly question. My propositional logic is a little rusty and I'm probably just overlooking something. Any insight would be greatly appreciated!







elementary-number-theory divisibility propositional-calculus






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




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asked Jan 14 at 23:09









greycatbirdgreycatbird

1327




1327








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    You can't prove this from propositional logic alone, because the proof requires the semantics of what you are trying to prove (the meaning of the statements). This is not a tautology. The proposition $(Pwedge Q)Rightarrow R$ is not equivalent to the proposition $(Pwedge R)Rightarrow Q$. The former is true when $P$ and $R$ are true and $Q$ false, but the latter is false in that case.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 14 at 23:14






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    So the question is not about elementary number theory. Of course, $cmid a$ and $cmid a+b$ imply $cmid b$. Your proof is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 14 at 23:14








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your proof is correct, but it is really much better to avoid writing so many letters if possible. You could simply write $b=(a+b)-a$ and use the part which as you wrote in the beginning you already know.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    Jan 14 at 23:16










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you guys for the response. The proof 'felt' correct, but it seemed strange to me that I've never come across that property before (simple although it may be). That's why I decided to delve deeper using propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:23














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    You can't prove this from propositional logic alone, because the proof requires the semantics of what you are trying to prove (the meaning of the statements). This is not a tautology. The proposition $(Pwedge Q)Rightarrow R$ is not equivalent to the proposition $(Pwedge R)Rightarrow Q$. The former is true when $P$ and $R$ are true and $Q$ false, but the latter is false in that case.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 14 at 23:14






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    So the question is not about elementary number theory. Of course, $cmid a$ and $cmid a+b$ imply $cmid b$. Your proof is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 14 at 23:14








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your proof is correct, but it is really much better to avoid writing so many letters if possible. You could simply write $b=(a+b)-a$ and use the part which as you wrote in the beginning you already know.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    Jan 14 at 23:16










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you guys for the response. The proof 'felt' correct, but it seemed strange to me that I've never come across that property before (simple although it may be). That's why I decided to delve deeper using propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:23








3




3




$begingroup$
You can't prove this from propositional logic alone, because the proof requires the semantics of what you are trying to prove (the meaning of the statements). This is not a tautology. The proposition $(Pwedge Q)Rightarrow R$ is not equivalent to the proposition $(Pwedge R)Rightarrow Q$. The former is true when $P$ and $R$ are true and $Q$ false, but the latter is false in that case.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 14 at 23:14




$begingroup$
You can't prove this from propositional logic alone, because the proof requires the semantics of what you are trying to prove (the meaning of the statements). This is not a tautology. The proposition $(Pwedge Q)Rightarrow R$ is not equivalent to the proposition $(Pwedge R)Rightarrow Q$. The former is true when $P$ and $R$ are true and $Q$ false, but the latter is false in that case.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 14 at 23:14




2




2




$begingroup$
So the question is not about elementary number theory. Of course, $cmid a$ and $cmid a+b$ imply $cmid b$. Your proof is correct.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 14 at 23:14






$begingroup$
So the question is not about elementary number theory. Of course, $cmid a$ and $cmid a+b$ imply $cmid b$. Your proof is correct.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 14 at 23:14






2




2




$begingroup$
Your proof is correct, but it is really much better to avoid writing so many letters if possible. You could simply write $b=(a+b)-a$ and use the part which as you wrote in the beginning you already know.
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 14 at 23:16




$begingroup$
Your proof is correct, but it is really much better to avoid writing so many letters if possible. You could simply write $b=(a+b)-a$ and use the part which as you wrote in the beginning you already know.
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 14 at 23:16












$begingroup$
Thank you guys for the response. The proof 'felt' correct, but it seemed strange to me that I've never come across that property before (simple although it may be). That's why I decided to delve deeper using propositional logic.
$endgroup$
– greycatbird
Jan 14 at 23:23




$begingroup$
Thank you guys for the response. The proof 'felt' correct, but it seemed strange to me that I've never come across that property before (simple although it may be). That's why I decided to delve deeper using propositional logic.
$endgroup$
– greycatbird
Jan 14 at 23:23










1 Answer
1






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2












$begingroup$

Your number theory proof is correct, but your proposed equivalence in propositioal logic is (in general) not correct, so you can't use it to proof what you want just with your initial knowledge and "propositional magic", you need actual number theory for that.



To see that the propositional formula is generally incorrect, set for example



$$P:=2|x, Q:=4|x, R=2|x$$



Of course, I may have misunderstood what you wanted to achieve with your propositional formula. If that's true, please explain.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the answer. I was intimidated by the simplicity of the proof. 'If it's too good to be true, it probably is.' I will remember to brush up on my propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:27












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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

Your number theory proof is correct, but your proposed equivalence in propositioal logic is (in general) not correct, so you can't use it to proof what you want just with your initial knowledge and "propositional magic", you need actual number theory for that.



To see that the propositional formula is generally incorrect, set for example



$$P:=2|x, Q:=4|x, R=2|x$$



Of course, I may have misunderstood what you wanted to achieve with your propositional formula. If that's true, please explain.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the answer. I was intimidated by the simplicity of the proof. 'If it's too good to be true, it probably is.' I will remember to brush up on my propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:27
















2












$begingroup$

Your number theory proof is correct, but your proposed equivalence in propositioal logic is (in general) not correct, so you can't use it to proof what you want just with your initial knowledge and "propositional magic", you need actual number theory for that.



To see that the propositional formula is generally incorrect, set for example



$$P:=2|x, Q:=4|x, R=2|x$$



Of course, I may have misunderstood what you wanted to achieve with your propositional formula. If that's true, please explain.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the answer. I was intimidated by the simplicity of the proof. 'If it's too good to be true, it probably is.' I will remember to brush up on my propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:27














2












2








2





$begingroup$

Your number theory proof is correct, but your proposed equivalence in propositioal logic is (in general) not correct, so you can't use it to proof what you want just with your initial knowledge and "propositional magic", you need actual number theory for that.



To see that the propositional formula is generally incorrect, set for example



$$P:=2|x, Q:=4|x, R=2|x$$



Of course, I may have misunderstood what you wanted to achieve with your propositional formula. If that's true, please explain.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Your number theory proof is correct, but your proposed equivalence in propositioal logic is (in general) not correct, so you can't use it to proof what you want just with your initial knowledge and "propositional magic", you need actual number theory for that.



To see that the propositional formula is generally incorrect, set for example



$$P:=2|x, Q:=4|x, R=2|x$$



Of course, I may have misunderstood what you wanted to achieve with your propositional formula. If that's true, please explain.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 14 at 23:22









IngixIngix

5,377259




5,377259












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the answer. I was intimidated by the simplicity of the proof. 'If it's too good to be true, it probably is.' I will remember to brush up on my propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:27


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the answer. I was intimidated by the simplicity of the proof. 'If it's too good to be true, it probably is.' I will remember to brush up on my propositional logic.
    $endgroup$
    – greycatbird
    Jan 14 at 23:27
















$begingroup$
Thank you for the answer. I was intimidated by the simplicity of the proof. 'If it's too good to be true, it probably is.' I will remember to brush up on my propositional logic.
$endgroup$
– greycatbird
Jan 14 at 23:27




$begingroup$
Thank you for the answer. I was intimidated by the simplicity of the proof. 'If it's too good to be true, it probably is.' I will remember to brush up on my propositional logic.
$endgroup$
– greycatbird
Jan 14 at 23:27


















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