Does the improper integral $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converge?
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I want to show the convergence of the following improper integral $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$.
I try to use comparison test for integrals
$x≥0$, $-x ≥0$, $-x^2≥0$ then $e^{-x^2}≤1$. So am ending with the fact that $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges if $int_0^infty dx$ converges but I don’t appreciate this. Thanks
real-analysis integration
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show 1 more comment
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I want to show the convergence of the following improper integral $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$.
I try to use comparison test for integrals
$x≥0$, $-x ≥0$, $-x^2≥0$ then $e^{-x^2}≤1$. So am ending with the fact that $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges if $int_0^infty dx$ converges but I don’t appreciate this. Thanks
real-analysis integration
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Please use LaTeX. Is this integral of $int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2},dx$ (int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2}dx
), $int_0^{infty}(e-x^2),dx$ (int_0^{infty}(e-x^2)dx$
, or what?
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– Arturo Magidin
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
6
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I assume you mean $int_0^infty e^{-x^2} dx$. Hint: compare to $int_0^infty e^{-x} dx$.
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– Robert Israel
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
1
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@neemy: Yes the integral $int_{0}^{infty} e^{-x^2} dx$ converges and it's value is $sqrt{pi}$
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– user9413
Jan 6 '12 at 4:34
2
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There is a wonderful math markup language called LaTeX which this site supports and allows you to communicate math much more clearly and legibly. Learn it; it will help you here and elsewhere. I have edited your question with proper formatting. If the new version is not the question you were trying to ask, just let me know.
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– Alex Becker
Jan 6 '12 at 4:37
2
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@Chandrasekhar You probably meant to write the value as $sqrt{pi}/2$, not $sqrt{pi}$.
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– Dilip Sarwate
Jan 6 '12 at 13:32
|
show 1 more comment
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I want to show the convergence of the following improper integral $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$.
I try to use comparison test for integrals
$x≥0$, $-x ≥0$, $-x^2≥0$ then $e^{-x^2}≤1$. So am ending with the fact that $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges if $int_0^infty dx$ converges but I don’t appreciate this. Thanks
real-analysis integration
$endgroup$
I want to show the convergence of the following improper integral $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$.
I try to use comparison test for integrals
$x≥0$, $-x ≥0$, $-x^2≥0$ then $e^{-x^2}≤1$. So am ending with the fact that $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges if $int_0^infty dx$ converges but I don’t appreciate this. Thanks
real-analysis integration
real-analysis integration
edited Jan 6 '12 at 4:34
Alex Becker
48.9k698161
48.9k698161
asked Jan 6 '12 at 4:27
neemyneemy
107126
107126
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Please use LaTeX. Is this integral of $int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2},dx$ (int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2}dx
), $int_0^{infty}(e-x^2),dx$ (int_0^{infty}(e-x^2)dx$
, or what?
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– Arturo Magidin
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
6
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I assume you mean $int_0^infty e^{-x^2} dx$. Hint: compare to $int_0^infty e^{-x} dx$.
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– Robert Israel
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
1
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@neemy: Yes the integral $int_{0}^{infty} e^{-x^2} dx$ converges and it's value is $sqrt{pi}$
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– user9413
Jan 6 '12 at 4:34
2
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There is a wonderful math markup language called LaTeX which this site supports and allows you to communicate math much more clearly and legibly. Learn it; it will help you here and elsewhere. I have edited your question with proper formatting. If the new version is not the question you were trying to ask, just let me know.
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– Alex Becker
Jan 6 '12 at 4:37
2
$begingroup$
@Chandrasekhar You probably meant to write the value as $sqrt{pi}/2$, not $sqrt{pi}$.
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– Dilip Sarwate
Jan 6 '12 at 13:32
|
show 1 more comment
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Please use LaTeX. Is this integral of $int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2},dx$ (int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2}dx
), $int_0^{infty}(e-x^2),dx$ (int_0^{infty}(e-x^2)dx$
, or what?
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– Arturo Magidin
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
6
$begingroup$
I assume you mean $int_0^infty e^{-x^2} dx$. Hint: compare to $int_0^infty e^{-x} dx$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
1
$begingroup$
@neemy: Yes the integral $int_{0}^{infty} e^{-x^2} dx$ converges and it's value is $sqrt{pi}$
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– user9413
Jan 6 '12 at 4:34
2
$begingroup$
There is a wonderful math markup language called LaTeX which this site supports and allows you to communicate math much more clearly and legibly. Learn it; it will help you here and elsewhere. I have edited your question with proper formatting. If the new version is not the question you were trying to ask, just let me know.
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– Alex Becker
Jan 6 '12 at 4:37
2
$begingroup$
@Chandrasekhar You probably meant to write the value as $sqrt{pi}/2$, not $sqrt{pi}$.
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– Dilip Sarwate
Jan 6 '12 at 13:32
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Please use LaTeX. Is this integral of $int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2},dx$ (
int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2}dx
), $int_0^{infty}(e-x^2),dx$ (int_0^{infty}(e-x^2)dx$
, or what?$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
$begingroup$
Please use LaTeX. Is this integral of $int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2},dx$ (
int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2}dx
), $int_0^{infty}(e-x^2),dx$ (int_0^{infty}(e-x^2)dx$
, or what?$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
6
6
$begingroup$
I assume you mean $int_0^infty e^{-x^2} dx$. Hint: compare to $int_0^infty e^{-x} dx$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
$begingroup$
I assume you mean $int_0^infty e^{-x^2} dx$. Hint: compare to $int_0^infty e^{-x} dx$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
1
1
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@neemy: Yes the integral $int_{0}^{infty} e^{-x^2} dx$ converges and it's value is $sqrt{pi}$
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– user9413
Jan 6 '12 at 4:34
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@neemy: Yes the integral $int_{0}^{infty} e^{-x^2} dx$ converges and it's value is $sqrt{pi}$
$endgroup$
– user9413
Jan 6 '12 at 4:34
2
2
$begingroup$
There is a wonderful math markup language called LaTeX which this site supports and allows you to communicate math much more clearly and legibly. Learn it; it will help you here and elsewhere. I have edited your question with proper formatting. If the new version is not the question you were trying to ask, just let me know.
$endgroup$
– Alex Becker
Jan 6 '12 at 4:37
$begingroup$
There is a wonderful math markup language called LaTeX which this site supports and allows you to communicate math much more clearly and legibly. Learn it; it will help you here and elsewhere. I have edited your question with proper formatting. If the new version is not the question you were trying to ask, just let me know.
$endgroup$
– Alex Becker
Jan 6 '12 at 4:37
2
2
$begingroup$
@Chandrasekhar You probably meant to write the value as $sqrt{pi}/2$, not $sqrt{pi}$.
$endgroup$
– Dilip Sarwate
Jan 6 '12 at 13:32
$begingroup$
@Chandrasekhar You probably meant to write the value as $sqrt{pi}/2$, not $sqrt{pi}$.
$endgroup$
– Dilip Sarwate
Jan 6 '12 at 13:32
|
show 1 more comment
6 Answers
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Write
$$int_0^infty e^{-x^2} , dx = int_0^1 e^{-x^2} , dx + int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx$$
The first integral on the right hand side is of a bounded function over a bounded interval, hence finite. For the second notice that we have $x^2 > x$ when $x > 1$. Therefore, $e^{-x^2} < e^{-x}$ for $x > 1$ and it follows that
$$int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx < int_1^infty e^{-x} , dx$$
$$= lim_{x to infty} -e^{-x} + e^{-1} = 1/e < infty$$
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add a comment |
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I'm assuming you're asking about the convergence of $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$. The easiest way that I can think of to prove this is to note that $e^{-x^2}$ is continuous and bounded, and hence integrable, on the interval $[0,1]$, and that on the remaining unbounded interval $[1,infty)$ it is a function everywhere bounded in absolute value by a function $e^{-x}$ that is integrable on that interval (seeing that $int_1^infty e^{-x}dx$ converges is a simple calculation, since $e^{-x}$ has an easy antiderivative). Thus, by the comparison test, $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges. I think this is the idea you're referring to in your question.
$int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ does not exist if $int_0^infty dx$ does, since the latter one most certainly does not converge (it equals $lim_{x to infty} x = infty$). While it is true that $e^{-x^2} le 1$ on $[0,infty)$, this fact isn't really helpful, because the comparison test only gives us information when the bounding function is itself integrable (otherwise you get absurdities like claiming that $int_0^infty e^{-x}dx$ diverges because $e^{-x} le x $ and $int_0^infty x dx$ diverges.)
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add a comment |
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It does, and you can also compute its value:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_{[0, infty)}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dy big)dx = int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy big)dx =$
$= int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy = big( int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx big)^2$
Then we can use polar coordinates:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_0^{infty} big(int_0^{fracpi2}re^{-r^2}dtheta)dr = fracpi2int_0^{infty}re^{-r^2}dr = fracpi2 frac12 = fracpi4$
Therefore:
$int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx = big(fracpi4big)^{frac12}$
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add a comment |
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Exercise 3-41 of Spivak's "Calculus on Manifolds" outlines how to prove that $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$ using polar coordinates, a related double integral, and two useful families of regions over which to evaluate the double integral. The description is actually quite long. Ironically, he ends the problem with a quote attributed to Lord Kelvin (William Thomson), who was trying to convey the meaning of "mathematician" to a class: "A mathematician is one to whom "that" (i.e., $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$) is as obvious as that twice two makes four is to you." A bit harsh, I daresay, on Lord Kelvin's part. The reality being conveyed by Spivak is that it's obvious once you've done the necessary work.
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2
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Does Spivak quote the next part? "Liouville was a mathematician." I always thought that was a nice thing to say about someone.
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– Dylan Moreland
Jan 6 '12 at 6:54
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@Dylan-Yes. Spivak includes that statement.
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– Chris Leary
Jan 6 '12 at 18:15
add a comment |
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Let $$f(x) = frac{1}{{e^x}^{2}}$$
Now let $$g(x) = frac{1}{x^2 + 1}$$
$$lim _{xrightarrow infty} = 0 $$ and $g(x)$ is a convergent integral, so $f(x)$ is convergent too.
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add a comment |
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A simple answer as @neemy… Remember the function of Normal probability
$$N(mu,sigma)=displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sigmasqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{1}{2}left(frac{x-mu}{sigma}right)^2};dx}=bf{1}}$$
For $mu=0$ and $sigma=1$
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{x^2}{2}};dx}=bf{1}}$$
Introduce a change of variable with its respective Jacobian
$$x=sqrt{2};u\dx=sqrt{2};du$$
and result
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{sqrt{2}}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-u^2};du}=bf{1}} Rightarrow displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=bf{sqrt{pi}}}$$
The Normal is even function, therefore
$$displaystyle{int_0^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}}$$
P.D.: Excuse my English, please.
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3
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I didn't downvote, but I comment in order to explain that vote: you assume that a more complicated integral is defined in order to prove that $int e^{-x^2} , dx$ is defined. Of course, integrability of the two functions $e^{-x^2}$ and the Gaussian is equivalent by a simple substitution (part of that statement is what you showed). That's begging the question
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– t.b.
Mar 18 '12 at 23:50
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6 Answers
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6 Answers
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Write
$$int_0^infty e^{-x^2} , dx = int_0^1 e^{-x^2} , dx + int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx$$
The first integral on the right hand side is of a bounded function over a bounded interval, hence finite. For the second notice that we have $x^2 > x$ when $x > 1$. Therefore, $e^{-x^2} < e^{-x}$ for $x > 1$ and it follows that
$$int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx < int_1^infty e^{-x} , dx$$
$$= lim_{x to infty} -e^{-x} + e^{-1} = 1/e < infty$$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Write
$$int_0^infty e^{-x^2} , dx = int_0^1 e^{-x^2} , dx + int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx$$
The first integral on the right hand side is of a bounded function over a bounded interval, hence finite. For the second notice that we have $x^2 > x$ when $x > 1$. Therefore, $e^{-x^2} < e^{-x}$ for $x > 1$ and it follows that
$$int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx < int_1^infty e^{-x} , dx$$
$$= lim_{x to infty} -e^{-x} + e^{-1} = 1/e < infty$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Write
$$int_0^infty e^{-x^2} , dx = int_0^1 e^{-x^2} , dx + int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx$$
The first integral on the right hand side is of a bounded function over a bounded interval, hence finite. For the second notice that we have $x^2 > x$ when $x > 1$. Therefore, $e^{-x^2} < e^{-x}$ for $x > 1$ and it follows that
$$int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx < int_1^infty e^{-x} , dx$$
$$= lim_{x to infty} -e^{-x} + e^{-1} = 1/e < infty$$
$endgroup$
Write
$$int_0^infty e^{-x^2} , dx = int_0^1 e^{-x^2} , dx + int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx$$
The first integral on the right hand side is of a bounded function over a bounded interval, hence finite. For the second notice that we have $x^2 > x$ when $x > 1$. Therefore, $e^{-x^2} < e^{-x}$ for $x > 1$ and it follows that
$$int_1^infty e^{-x^2} , dx < int_1^infty e^{-x} , dx$$
$$= lim_{x to infty} -e^{-x} + e^{-1} = 1/e < infty$$
edited Jan 9 '12 at 20:44
answered Jan 6 '12 at 4:46
user12014
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm assuming you're asking about the convergence of $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$. The easiest way that I can think of to prove this is to note that $e^{-x^2}$ is continuous and bounded, and hence integrable, on the interval $[0,1]$, and that on the remaining unbounded interval $[1,infty)$ it is a function everywhere bounded in absolute value by a function $e^{-x}$ that is integrable on that interval (seeing that $int_1^infty e^{-x}dx$ converges is a simple calculation, since $e^{-x}$ has an easy antiderivative). Thus, by the comparison test, $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges. I think this is the idea you're referring to in your question.
$int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ does not exist if $int_0^infty dx$ does, since the latter one most certainly does not converge (it equals $lim_{x to infty} x = infty$). While it is true that $e^{-x^2} le 1$ on $[0,infty)$, this fact isn't really helpful, because the comparison test only gives us information when the bounding function is itself integrable (otherwise you get absurdities like claiming that $int_0^infty e^{-x}dx$ diverges because $e^{-x} le x $ and $int_0^infty x dx$ diverges.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm assuming you're asking about the convergence of $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$. The easiest way that I can think of to prove this is to note that $e^{-x^2}$ is continuous and bounded, and hence integrable, on the interval $[0,1]$, and that on the remaining unbounded interval $[1,infty)$ it is a function everywhere bounded in absolute value by a function $e^{-x}$ that is integrable on that interval (seeing that $int_1^infty e^{-x}dx$ converges is a simple calculation, since $e^{-x}$ has an easy antiderivative). Thus, by the comparison test, $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges. I think this is the idea you're referring to in your question.
$int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ does not exist if $int_0^infty dx$ does, since the latter one most certainly does not converge (it equals $lim_{x to infty} x = infty$). While it is true that $e^{-x^2} le 1$ on $[0,infty)$, this fact isn't really helpful, because the comparison test only gives us information when the bounding function is itself integrable (otherwise you get absurdities like claiming that $int_0^infty e^{-x}dx$ diverges because $e^{-x} le x $ and $int_0^infty x dx$ diverges.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm assuming you're asking about the convergence of $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$. The easiest way that I can think of to prove this is to note that $e^{-x^2}$ is continuous and bounded, and hence integrable, on the interval $[0,1]$, and that on the remaining unbounded interval $[1,infty)$ it is a function everywhere bounded in absolute value by a function $e^{-x}$ that is integrable on that interval (seeing that $int_1^infty e^{-x}dx$ converges is a simple calculation, since $e^{-x}$ has an easy antiderivative). Thus, by the comparison test, $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges. I think this is the idea you're referring to in your question.
$int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ does not exist if $int_0^infty dx$ does, since the latter one most certainly does not converge (it equals $lim_{x to infty} x = infty$). While it is true that $e^{-x^2} le 1$ on $[0,infty)$, this fact isn't really helpful, because the comparison test only gives us information when the bounding function is itself integrable (otherwise you get absurdities like claiming that $int_0^infty e^{-x}dx$ diverges because $e^{-x} le x $ and $int_0^infty x dx$ diverges.)
$endgroup$
I'm assuming you're asking about the convergence of $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$. The easiest way that I can think of to prove this is to note that $e^{-x^2}$ is continuous and bounded, and hence integrable, on the interval $[0,1]$, and that on the remaining unbounded interval $[1,infty)$ it is a function everywhere bounded in absolute value by a function $e^{-x}$ that is integrable on that interval (seeing that $int_1^infty e^{-x}dx$ converges is a simple calculation, since $e^{-x}$ has an easy antiderivative). Thus, by the comparison test, $int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ converges. I think this is the idea you're referring to in your question.
$int_0^infty e^{-x^2}dx$ does not exist if $int_0^infty dx$ does, since the latter one most certainly does not converge (it equals $lim_{x to infty} x = infty$). While it is true that $e^{-x^2} le 1$ on $[0,infty)$, this fact isn't really helpful, because the comparison test only gives us information when the bounding function is itself integrable (otherwise you get absurdities like claiming that $int_0^infty e^{-x}dx$ diverges because $e^{-x} le x $ and $int_0^infty x dx$ diverges.)
answered Jan 6 '12 at 4:47
Calvin McPhail-SnyderCalvin McPhail-Snyder
1,31911020
1,31911020
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add a comment |
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It does, and you can also compute its value:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_{[0, infty)}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dy big)dx = int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy big)dx =$
$= int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy = big( int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx big)^2$
Then we can use polar coordinates:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_0^{infty} big(int_0^{fracpi2}re^{-r^2}dtheta)dr = fracpi2int_0^{infty}re^{-r^2}dr = fracpi2 frac12 = fracpi4$
Therefore:
$int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx = big(fracpi4big)^{frac12}$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
It does, and you can also compute its value:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_{[0, infty)}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dy big)dx = int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy big)dx =$
$= int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy = big( int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx big)^2$
Then we can use polar coordinates:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_0^{infty} big(int_0^{fracpi2}re^{-r^2}dtheta)dr = fracpi2int_0^{infty}re^{-r^2}dr = fracpi2 frac12 = fracpi4$
Therefore:
$int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx = big(fracpi4big)^{frac12}$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It does, and you can also compute its value:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_{[0, infty)}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dy big)dx = int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy big)dx =$
$= int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy = big( int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx big)^2$
Then we can use polar coordinates:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_0^{infty} big(int_0^{fracpi2}re^{-r^2}dtheta)dr = fracpi2int_0^{infty}re^{-r^2}dr = fracpi2 frac12 = fracpi4$
Therefore:
$int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx = big(fracpi4big)^{frac12}$
$endgroup$
It does, and you can also compute its value:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_{[0, infty)}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dy big)dx = int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}big(int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy big)dx =$
$= int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx int_{[0, infty)} e^{-y^2} dy = big( int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx big)^2$
Then we can use polar coordinates:
$int_{[0, infty) times[0, infty)} e^{-(x^2+y^2)} dx dy = int_0^{infty} big(int_0^{fracpi2}re^{-r^2}dtheta)dr = fracpi2int_0^{infty}re^{-r^2}dr = fracpi2 frac12 = fracpi4$
Therefore:
$int_{[0, infty)} e ^ {-x^2}dx = big(fracpi4big)^{frac12}$
edited Jan 7 '12 at 6:16
Jonas Meyer
40.4k6146254
40.4k6146254
answered Jan 6 '12 at 7:00
wazabitwazabit
20715
20715
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Exercise 3-41 of Spivak's "Calculus on Manifolds" outlines how to prove that $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$ using polar coordinates, a related double integral, and two useful families of regions over which to evaluate the double integral. The description is actually quite long. Ironically, he ends the problem with a quote attributed to Lord Kelvin (William Thomson), who was trying to convey the meaning of "mathematician" to a class: "A mathematician is one to whom "that" (i.e., $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$) is as obvious as that twice two makes four is to you." A bit harsh, I daresay, on Lord Kelvin's part. The reality being conveyed by Spivak is that it's obvious once you've done the necessary work.
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2
$begingroup$
Does Spivak quote the next part? "Liouville was a mathematician." I always thought that was a nice thing to say about someone.
$endgroup$
– Dylan Moreland
Jan 6 '12 at 6:54
$begingroup$
@Dylan-Yes. Spivak includes that statement.
$endgroup$
– Chris Leary
Jan 6 '12 at 18:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Exercise 3-41 of Spivak's "Calculus on Manifolds" outlines how to prove that $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$ using polar coordinates, a related double integral, and two useful families of regions over which to evaluate the double integral. The description is actually quite long. Ironically, he ends the problem with a quote attributed to Lord Kelvin (William Thomson), who was trying to convey the meaning of "mathematician" to a class: "A mathematician is one to whom "that" (i.e., $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$) is as obvious as that twice two makes four is to you." A bit harsh, I daresay, on Lord Kelvin's part. The reality being conveyed by Spivak is that it's obvious once you've done the necessary work.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Does Spivak quote the next part? "Liouville was a mathematician." I always thought that was a nice thing to say about someone.
$endgroup$
– Dylan Moreland
Jan 6 '12 at 6:54
$begingroup$
@Dylan-Yes. Spivak includes that statement.
$endgroup$
– Chris Leary
Jan 6 '12 at 18:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Exercise 3-41 of Spivak's "Calculus on Manifolds" outlines how to prove that $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$ using polar coordinates, a related double integral, and two useful families of regions over which to evaluate the double integral. The description is actually quite long. Ironically, he ends the problem with a quote attributed to Lord Kelvin (William Thomson), who was trying to convey the meaning of "mathematician" to a class: "A mathematician is one to whom "that" (i.e., $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$) is as obvious as that twice two makes four is to you." A bit harsh, I daresay, on Lord Kelvin's part. The reality being conveyed by Spivak is that it's obvious once you've done the necessary work.
$endgroup$
Exercise 3-41 of Spivak's "Calculus on Manifolds" outlines how to prove that $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$ using polar coordinates, a related double integral, and two useful families of regions over which to evaluate the double integral. The description is actually quite long. Ironically, he ends the problem with a quote attributed to Lord Kelvin (William Thomson), who was trying to convey the meaning of "mathematician" to a class: "A mathematician is one to whom "that" (i.e., $int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{-x^{2}}dx=sqrt{pi}$) is as obvious as that twice two makes four is to you." A bit harsh, I daresay, on Lord Kelvin's part. The reality being conveyed by Spivak is that it's obvious once you've done the necessary work.
answered Jan 6 '12 at 6:44
Chris LearyChris Leary
1,8401316
1,8401316
2
$begingroup$
Does Spivak quote the next part? "Liouville was a mathematician." I always thought that was a nice thing to say about someone.
$endgroup$
– Dylan Moreland
Jan 6 '12 at 6:54
$begingroup$
@Dylan-Yes. Spivak includes that statement.
$endgroup$
– Chris Leary
Jan 6 '12 at 18:15
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Does Spivak quote the next part? "Liouville was a mathematician." I always thought that was a nice thing to say about someone.
$endgroup$
– Dylan Moreland
Jan 6 '12 at 6:54
$begingroup$
@Dylan-Yes. Spivak includes that statement.
$endgroup$
– Chris Leary
Jan 6 '12 at 18:15
2
2
$begingroup$
Does Spivak quote the next part? "Liouville was a mathematician." I always thought that was a nice thing to say about someone.
$endgroup$
– Dylan Moreland
Jan 6 '12 at 6:54
$begingroup$
Does Spivak quote the next part? "Liouville was a mathematician." I always thought that was a nice thing to say about someone.
$endgroup$
– Dylan Moreland
Jan 6 '12 at 6:54
$begingroup$
@Dylan-Yes. Spivak includes that statement.
$endgroup$
– Chris Leary
Jan 6 '12 at 18:15
$begingroup$
@Dylan-Yes. Spivak includes that statement.
$endgroup$
– Chris Leary
Jan 6 '12 at 18:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $$f(x) = frac{1}{{e^x}^{2}}$$
Now let $$g(x) = frac{1}{x^2 + 1}$$
$$lim _{xrightarrow infty} = 0 $$ and $g(x)$ is a convergent integral, so $f(x)$ is convergent too.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $$f(x) = frac{1}{{e^x}^{2}}$$
Now let $$g(x) = frac{1}{x^2 + 1}$$
$$lim _{xrightarrow infty} = 0 $$ and $g(x)$ is a convergent integral, so $f(x)$ is convergent too.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $$f(x) = frac{1}{{e^x}^{2}}$$
Now let $$g(x) = frac{1}{x^2 + 1}$$
$$lim _{xrightarrow infty} = 0 $$ and $g(x)$ is a convergent integral, so $f(x)$ is convergent too.
$endgroup$
Let $$f(x) = frac{1}{{e^x}^{2}}$$
Now let $$g(x) = frac{1}{x^2 + 1}$$
$$lim _{xrightarrow infty} = 0 $$ and $g(x)$ is a convergent integral, so $f(x)$ is convergent too.
edited Dec 20 '18 at 18:38
Prakhar Nagpal
747318
747318
answered Dec 20 '18 at 18:08
Ali nakhaeeAli nakhaee
1
1
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A simple answer as @neemy… Remember the function of Normal probability
$$N(mu,sigma)=displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sigmasqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{1}{2}left(frac{x-mu}{sigma}right)^2};dx}=bf{1}}$$
For $mu=0$ and $sigma=1$
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{x^2}{2}};dx}=bf{1}}$$
Introduce a change of variable with its respective Jacobian
$$x=sqrt{2};u\dx=sqrt{2};du$$
and result
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{sqrt{2}}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-u^2};du}=bf{1}} Rightarrow displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=bf{sqrt{pi}}}$$
The Normal is even function, therefore
$$displaystyle{int_0^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}}$$
P.D.: Excuse my English, please.
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote, but I comment in order to explain that vote: you assume that a more complicated integral is defined in order to prove that $int e^{-x^2} , dx$ is defined. Of course, integrability of the two functions $e^{-x^2}$ and the Gaussian is equivalent by a simple substitution (part of that statement is what you showed). That's begging the question
$endgroup$
– t.b.
Mar 18 '12 at 23:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A simple answer as @neemy… Remember the function of Normal probability
$$N(mu,sigma)=displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sigmasqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{1}{2}left(frac{x-mu}{sigma}right)^2};dx}=bf{1}}$$
For $mu=0$ and $sigma=1$
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{x^2}{2}};dx}=bf{1}}$$
Introduce a change of variable with its respective Jacobian
$$x=sqrt{2};u\dx=sqrt{2};du$$
and result
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{sqrt{2}}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-u^2};du}=bf{1}} Rightarrow displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=bf{sqrt{pi}}}$$
The Normal is even function, therefore
$$displaystyle{int_0^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}}$$
P.D.: Excuse my English, please.
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote, but I comment in order to explain that vote: you assume that a more complicated integral is defined in order to prove that $int e^{-x^2} , dx$ is defined. Of course, integrability of the two functions $e^{-x^2}$ and the Gaussian is equivalent by a simple substitution (part of that statement is what you showed). That's begging the question
$endgroup$
– t.b.
Mar 18 '12 at 23:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A simple answer as @neemy… Remember the function of Normal probability
$$N(mu,sigma)=displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sigmasqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{1}{2}left(frac{x-mu}{sigma}right)^2};dx}=bf{1}}$$
For $mu=0$ and $sigma=1$
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{x^2}{2}};dx}=bf{1}}$$
Introduce a change of variable with its respective Jacobian
$$x=sqrt{2};u\dx=sqrt{2};du$$
and result
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{sqrt{2}}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-u^2};du}=bf{1}} Rightarrow displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=bf{sqrt{pi}}}$$
The Normal is even function, therefore
$$displaystyle{int_0^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}}$$
P.D.: Excuse my English, please.
$endgroup$
A simple answer as @neemy… Remember the function of Normal probability
$$N(mu,sigma)=displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sigmasqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{1}{2}left(frac{x-mu}{sigma}right)^2};dx}=bf{1}}$$
For $mu=0$ and $sigma=1$
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-frac{x^2}{2}};dx}=bf{1}}$$
Introduce a change of variable with its respective Jacobian
$$x=sqrt{2};u\dx=sqrt{2};du$$
and result
$$displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{frac{sqrt{2}}{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-u^2};du}=bf{1}} Rightarrow displaystyle{int_{-infty}^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=bf{sqrt{pi}}}$$
The Normal is even function, therefore
$$displaystyle{int_0^{+infty}{e^{-u^2};du}=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}}$$
P.D.: Excuse my English, please.
answered Mar 18 '12 at 19:56
diofantodiofanto
1142
1142
3
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote, but I comment in order to explain that vote: you assume that a more complicated integral is defined in order to prove that $int e^{-x^2} , dx$ is defined. Of course, integrability of the two functions $e^{-x^2}$ and the Gaussian is equivalent by a simple substitution (part of that statement is what you showed). That's begging the question
$endgroup$
– t.b.
Mar 18 '12 at 23:50
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote, but I comment in order to explain that vote: you assume that a more complicated integral is defined in order to prove that $int e^{-x^2} , dx$ is defined. Of course, integrability of the two functions $e^{-x^2}$ and the Gaussian is equivalent by a simple substitution (part of that statement is what you showed). That's begging the question
$endgroup$
– t.b.
Mar 18 '12 at 23:50
3
3
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote, but I comment in order to explain that vote: you assume that a more complicated integral is defined in order to prove that $int e^{-x^2} , dx$ is defined. Of course, integrability of the two functions $e^{-x^2}$ and the Gaussian is equivalent by a simple substitution (part of that statement is what you showed). That's begging the question
$endgroup$
– t.b.
Mar 18 '12 at 23:50
$begingroup$
I didn't downvote, but I comment in order to explain that vote: you assume that a more complicated integral is defined in order to prove that $int e^{-x^2} , dx$ is defined. Of course, integrability of the two functions $e^{-x^2}$ and the Gaussian is equivalent by a simple substitution (part of that statement is what you showed). That's begging the question
$endgroup$
– t.b.
Mar 18 '12 at 23:50
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Please use LaTeX. Is this integral of $int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2},dx$ (
int_0^{infty}e^{-x^2}dx
), $int_0^{infty}(e-x^2),dx$ (int_0^{infty}(e-x^2)dx$
, or what?$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
6
$begingroup$
I assume you mean $int_0^infty e^{-x^2} dx$. Hint: compare to $int_0^infty e^{-x} dx$.
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– Robert Israel
Jan 6 '12 at 4:32
1
$begingroup$
@neemy: Yes the integral $int_{0}^{infty} e^{-x^2} dx$ converges and it's value is $sqrt{pi}$
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– user9413
Jan 6 '12 at 4:34
2
$begingroup$
There is a wonderful math markup language called LaTeX which this site supports and allows you to communicate math much more clearly and legibly. Learn it; it will help you here and elsewhere. I have edited your question with proper formatting. If the new version is not the question you were trying to ask, just let me know.
$endgroup$
– Alex Becker
Jan 6 '12 at 4:37
2
$begingroup$
@Chandrasekhar You probably meant to write the value as $sqrt{pi}/2$, not $sqrt{pi}$.
$endgroup$
– Dilip Sarwate
Jan 6 '12 at 13:32