Two Variable Function with Specific Properties (Challenging)












3












$begingroup$


I am looking for a two variable function (a surface), $g(x,b)$, with the following properties:



$$g: [0,pi] times (0,pi) to[0,pi] $$



$$g(0,b)=0$$
$$g(pi,b)=pi$$
$$g(b,b)=frac{pi}{2}$$
$$gleft( x,frac{pi}{2}right)=x$$



Where $xin[0,pi]$ and $bin(0,pi)$.



Can you define such a $g$? I have been looking for a while and am unable to find one. If you cannot define one, does such a $g$ even exist?










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Must it be continuous/differentiable/etc., or can it simply be any function?
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 20 '18 at 21:03










  • $begingroup$
    @RossMillikan Also, the OP asked for a surface, which probably add some further restrictions.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 20 '18 at 21:10
















3












$begingroup$


I am looking for a two variable function (a surface), $g(x,b)$, with the following properties:



$$g: [0,pi] times (0,pi) to[0,pi] $$



$$g(0,b)=0$$
$$g(pi,b)=pi$$
$$g(b,b)=frac{pi}{2}$$
$$gleft( x,frac{pi}{2}right)=x$$



Where $xin[0,pi]$ and $bin(0,pi)$.



Can you define such a $g$? I have been looking for a while and am unable to find one. If you cannot define one, does such a $g$ even exist?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Must it be continuous/differentiable/etc., or can it simply be any function?
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 20 '18 at 21:03










  • $begingroup$
    @RossMillikan Also, the OP asked for a surface, which probably add some further restrictions.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 20 '18 at 21:10














3












3








3


0



$begingroup$


I am looking for a two variable function (a surface), $g(x,b)$, with the following properties:



$$g: [0,pi] times (0,pi) to[0,pi] $$



$$g(0,b)=0$$
$$g(pi,b)=pi$$
$$g(b,b)=frac{pi}{2}$$
$$gleft( x,frac{pi}{2}right)=x$$



Where $xin[0,pi]$ and $bin(0,pi)$.



Can you define such a $g$? I have been looking for a while and am unable to find one. If you cannot define one, does such a $g$ even exist?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I am looking for a two variable function (a surface), $g(x,b)$, with the following properties:



$$g: [0,pi] times (0,pi) to[0,pi] $$



$$g(0,b)=0$$
$$g(pi,b)=pi$$
$$g(b,b)=frac{pi}{2}$$
$$gleft( x,frac{pi}{2}right)=x$$



Where $xin[0,pi]$ and $bin(0,pi)$.



Can you define such a $g$? I have been looking for a while and am unable to find one. If you cannot define one, does such a $g$ even exist?







calculus multivariable-calculus functions surfaces






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asked Dec 20 '18 at 20:55









ereHsaWyhsipSereHsaWyhsipS

510312




510312








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Must it be continuous/differentiable/etc., or can it simply be any function?
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 20 '18 at 21:03










  • $begingroup$
    @RossMillikan Also, the OP asked for a surface, which probably add some further restrictions.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 20 '18 at 21:10














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Must it be continuous/differentiable/etc., or can it simply be any function?
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 20 '18 at 21:03










  • $begingroup$
    @RossMillikan Also, the OP asked for a surface, which probably add some further restrictions.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 20 '18 at 21:10








2




2




$begingroup$
Must it be continuous/differentiable/etc., or can it simply be any function?
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 20 '18 at 21:03




$begingroup$
Must it be continuous/differentiable/etc., or can it simply be any function?
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 20 '18 at 21:03












$begingroup$
@RossMillikan Also, the OP asked for a surface, which probably add some further restrictions.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 20 '18 at 21:10




$begingroup$
@RossMillikan Also, the OP asked for a surface, which probably add some further restrictions.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 20 '18 at 21:10










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Something like
$$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ arctanbigl(tan(x-tfracpi2)-tan(b-tfracpi2)bigr)+tfracpi2 & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
ought to work relatively smoothly, but this version with hyperbolic functions behaves nicer in some respects:
$$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ tfracpi2 Bigl(tanhbigl(operatorname{arctanh}(2x/pi -1)-operatorname{arctanh}(2b/pi-1)bigr)+1Bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$



"Nicer" is in the eye of the beholder, of course. These proposals both have the general form
$$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ h^{-1}bigl(h(x)-h(b)bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
where $h$ is an increasing bijection $(0,pi)tomathbb R$ with $h(pi/2)=0$. This immediately guarantees the properties you specify, as well as continuity in your domain. Furthermore the function is increasing in $x$ and $b$ for fixed $b$ and $x$.



The $tan$ version has the property that at each fixed $b$ we have $g(varepsilon, b)approxvarepsilon$ for small enough $varepsilon$ (and similarly at the other three edges of the domain, mutatis mutandis). This probably is not what you want, but since I don't know what you want it for it could be exactly what you need.



On the other hand $operatorname{arctanh}$ gives the nice property that if you graph $g$ for constant $x$ or $b$, there are no inflection points. One would probably usually find that desirable.



For a purely algebraic option you might try $h(x)=frac{1}{pi-x}-frac{1}{x} $, which ought to behave more or less like the tangent option.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    $$g(x,y)=2arctanfrac{tan(x/2)}{tan (y/2)}$$
    I've started from $g(b,b)=fracpi2$. That means that somehow $g$ depends either on the difference $(x-y)$, or some ratio of similar functions for the coordinates $f(x)/f(y)$. The second form was hinted from the fact that $y$ is on an open interval, so $f(0),f(pi)in[0,pminfty]$. The fact that $g(0,b)=0$ means $f(0)=0$. But $g(pi,y)=pi$ means that I need to scale $f(pi)=infty$ back to $pi$ (that's where the ideas of $tan$ and $arctan$ functions came from). If $f(pi/2)=1$ you have $arctan tan x=x$.



    Note: following the comment from @HenningMakholm, I can rewrite this in a more accurate way:
    $$g(x,y)=lim_{uto x}2arctanfrac{tan(u/2)}{tan(y/2)}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I think you'll need a special case for $x=pi$ there. (By the way, this fits into the general form I propose in my answer, by setting $h(x)=log tan(x/2)$).
      $endgroup$
      – Henning Makholm
      Dec 20 '18 at 21:54










    • $begingroup$
      Thanks @HenningMakholm. I've added to my answer using a hack: I've used limit.
      $endgroup$
      – Andrei
      Dec 20 '18 at 22:03











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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    5












    $begingroup$

    Something like
    $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ arctanbigl(tan(x-tfracpi2)-tan(b-tfracpi2)bigr)+tfracpi2 & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
    ought to work relatively smoothly, but this version with hyperbolic functions behaves nicer in some respects:
    $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ tfracpi2 Bigl(tanhbigl(operatorname{arctanh}(2x/pi -1)-operatorname{arctanh}(2b/pi-1)bigr)+1Bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$



    "Nicer" is in the eye of the beholder, of course. These proposals both have the general form
    $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ h^{-1}bigl(h(x)-h(b)bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
    where $h$ is an increasing bijection $(0,pi)tomathbb R$ with $h(pi/2)=0$. This immediately guarantees the properties you specify, as well as continuity in your domain. Furthermore the function is increasing in $x$ and $b$ for fixed $b$ and $x$.



    The $tan$ version has the property that at each fixed $b$ we have $g(varepsilon, b)approxvarepsilon$ for small enough $varepsilon$ (and similarly at the other three edges of the domain, mutatis mutandis). This probably is not what you want, but since I don't know what you want it for it could be exactly what you need.



    On the other hand $operatorname{arctanh}$ gives the nice property that if you graph $g$ for constant $x$ or $b$, there are no inflection points. One would probably usually find that desirable.



    For a purely algebraic option you might try $h(x)=frac{1}{pi-x}-frac{1}{x} $, which ought to behave more or less like the tangent option.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      5












      $begingroup$

      Something like
      $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ arctanbigl(tan(x-tfracpi2)-tan(b-tfracpi2)bigr)+tfracpi2 & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
      ought to work relatively smoothly, but this version with hyperbolic functions behaves nicer in some respects:
      $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ tfracpi2 Bigl(tanhbigl(operatorname{arctanh}(2x/pi -1)-operatorname{arctanh}(2b/pi-1)bigr)+1Bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$



      "Nicer" is in the eye of the beholder, of course. These proposals both have the general form
      $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ h^{-1}bigl(h(x)-h(b)bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
      where $h$ is an increasing bijection $(0,pi)tomathbb R$ with $h(pi/2)=0$. This immediately guarantees the properties you specify, as well as continuity in your domain. Furthermore the function is increasing in $x$ and $b$ for fixed $b$ and $x$.



      The $tan$ version has the property that at each fixed $b$ we have $g(varepsilon, b)approxvarepsilon$ for small enough $varepsilon$ (and similarly at the other three edges of the domain, mutatis mutandis). This probably is not what you want, but since I don't know what you want it for it could be exactly what you need.



      On the other hand $operatorname{arctanh}$ gives the nice property that if you graph $g$ for constant $x$ or $b$, there are no inflection points. One would probably usually find that desirable.



      For a purely algebraic option you might try $h(x)=frac{1}{pi-x}-frac{1}{x} $, which ought to behave more or less like the tangent option.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        Something like
        $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ arctanbigl(tan(x-tfracpi2)-tan(b-tfracpi2)bigr)+tfracpi2 & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
        ought to work relatively smoothly, but this version with hyperbolic functions behaves nicer in some respects:
        $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ tfracpi2 Bigl(tanhbigl(operatorname{arctanh}(2x/pi -1)-operatorname{arctanh}(2b/pi-1)bigr)+1Bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$



        "Nicer" is in the eye of the beholder, of course. These proposals both have the general form
        $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ h^{-1}bigl(h(x)-h(b)bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
        where $h$ is an increasing bijection $(0,pi)tomathbb R$ with $h(pi/2)=0$. This immediately guarantees the properties you specify, as well as continuity in your domain. Furthermore the function is increasing in $x$ and $b$ for fixed $b$ and $x$.



        The $tan$ version has the property that at each fixed $b$ we have $g(varepsilon, b)approxvarepsilon$ for small enough $varepsilon$ (and similarly at the other three edges of the domain, mutatis mutandis). This probably is not what you want, but since I don't know what you want it for it could be exactly what you need.



        On the other hand $operatorname{arctanh}$ gives the nice property that if you graph $g$ for constant $x$ or $b$, there are no inflection points. One would probably usually find that desirable.



        For a purely algebraic option you might try $h(x)=frac{1}{pi-x}-frac{1}{x} $, which ought to behave more or less like the tangent option.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Something like
        $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ arctanbigl(tan(x-tfracpi2)-tan(b-tfracpi2)bigr)+tfracpi2 & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
        ought to work relatively smoothly, but this version with hyperbolic functions behaves nicer in some respects:
        $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ tfracpi2 Bigl(tanhbigl(operatorname{arctanh}(2x/pi -1)-operatorname{arctanh}(2b/pi-1)bigr)+1Bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$



        "Nicer" is in the eye of the beholder, of course. These proposals both have the general form
        $$ g(x,b) = begin{cases} 0 & x=0\ h^{-1}bigl(h(x)-h(b)bigr) & 0<x<pi \ pi & x=pi end{cases} $$
        where $h$ is an increasing bijection $(0,pi)tomathbb R$ with $h(pi/2)=0$. This immediately guarantees the properties you specify, as well as continuity in your domain. Furthermore the function is increasing in $x$ and $b$ for fixed $b$ and $x$.



        The $tan$ version has the property that at each fixed $b$ we have $g(varepsilon, b)approxvarepsilon$ for small enough $varepsilon$ (and similarly at the other three edges of the domain, mutatis mutandis). This probably is not what you want, but since I don't know what you want it for it could be exactly what you need.



        On the other hand $operatorname{arctanh}$ gives the nice property that if you graph $g$ for constant $x$ or $b$, there are no inflection points. One would probably usually find that desirable.



        For a purely algebraic option you might try $h(x)=frac{1}{pi-x}-frac{1}{x} $, which ought to behave more or less like the tangent option.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 20 '18 at 21:43

























        answered Dec 20 '18 at 21:13









        Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

        239k17304541




        239k17304541























            0












            $begingroup$

            $$g(x,y)=2arctanfrac{tan(x/2)}{tan (y/2)}$$
            I've started from $g(b,b)=fracpi2$. That means that somehow $g$ depends either on the difference $(x-y)$, or some ratio of similar functions for the coordinates $f(x)/f(y)$. The second form was hinted from the fact that $y$ is on an open interval, so $f(0),f(pi)in[0,pminfty]$. The fact that $g(0,b)=0$ means $f(0)=0$. But $g(pi,y)=pi$ means that I need to scale $f(pi)=infty$ back to $pi$ (that's where the ideas of $tan$ and $arctan$ functions came from). If $f(pi/2)=1$ you have $arctan tan x=x$.



            Note: following the comment from @HenningMakholm, I can rewrite this in a more accurate way:
            $$g(x,y)=lim_{uto x}2arctanfrac{tan(u/2)}{tan(y/2)}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I think you'll need a special case for $x=pi$ there. (By the way, this fits into the general form I propose in my answer, by setting $h(x)=log tan(x/2)$).
              $endgroup$
              – Henning Makholm
              Dec 20 '18 at 21:54










            • $begingroup$
              Thanks @HenningMakholm. I've added to my answer using a hack: I've used limit.
              $endgroup$
              – Andrei
              Dec 20 '18 at 22:03
















            0












            $begingroup$

            $$g(x,y)=2arctanfrac{tan(x/2)}{tan (y/2)}$$
            I've started from $g(b,b)=fracpi2$. That means that somehow $g$ depends either on the difference $(x-y)$, or some ratio of similar functions for the coordinates $f(x)/f(y)$. The second form was hinted from the fact that $y$ is on an open interval, so $f(0),f(pi)in[0,pminfty]$. The fact that $g(0,b)=0$ means $f(0)=0$. But $g(pi,y)=pi$ means that I need to scale $f(pi)=infty$ back to $pi$ (that's where the ideas of $tan$ and $arctan$ functions came from). If $f(pi/2)=1$ you have $arctan tan x=x$.



            Note: following the comment from @HenningMakholm, I can rewrite this in a more accurate way:
            $$g(x,y)=lim_{uto x}2arctanfrac{tan(u/2)}{tan(y/2)}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I think you'll need a special case for $x=pi$ there. (By the way, this fits into the general form I propose in my answer, by setting $h(x)=log tan(x/2)$).
              $endgroup$
              – Henning Makholm
              Dec 20 '18 at 21:54










            • $begingroup$
              Thanks @HenningMakholm. I've added to my answer using a hack: I've used limit.
              $endgroup$
              – Andrei
              Dec 20 '18 at 22:03














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            $$g(x,y)=2arctanfrac{tan(x/2)}{tan (y/2)}$$
            I've started from $g(b,b)=fracpi2$. That means that somehow $g$ depends either on the difference $(x-y)$, or some ratio of similar functions for the coordinates $f(x)/f(y)$. The second form was hinted from the fact that $y$ is on an open interval, so $f(0),f(pi)in[0,pminfty]$. The fact that $g(0,b)=0$ means $f(0)=0$. But $g(pi,y)=pi$ means that I need to scale $f(pi)=infty$ back to $pi$ (that's where the ideas of $tan$ and $arctan$ functions came from). If $f(pi/2)=1$ you have $arctan tan x=x$.



            Note: following the comment from @HenningMakholm, I can rewrite this in a more accurate way:
            $$g(x,y)=lim_{uto x}2arctanfrac{tan(u/2)}{tan(y/2)}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            $$g(x,y)=2arctanfrac{tan(x/2)}{tan (y/2)}$$
            I've started from $g(b,b)=fracpi2$. That means that somehow $g$ depends either on the difference $(x-y)$, or some ratio of similar functions for the coordinates $f(x)/f(y)$. The second form was hinted from the fact that $y$ is on an open interval, so $f(0),f(pi)in[0,pminfty]$. The fact that $g(0,b)=0$ means $f(0)=0$. But $g(pi,y)=pi$ means that I need to scale $f(pi)=infty$ back to $pi$ (that's where the ideas of $tan$ and $arctan$ functions came from). If $f(pi/2)=1$ you have $arctan tan x=x$.



            Note: following the comment from @HenningMakholm, I can rewrite this in a more accurate way:
            $$g(x,y)=lim_{uto x}2arctanfrac{tan(u/2)}{tan(y/2)}$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 20 '18 at 22:02

























            answered Dec 20 '18 at 21:48









            AndreiAndrei

            11.8k21026




            11.8k21026








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I think you'll need a special case for $x=pi$ there. (By the way, this fits into the general form I propose in my answer, by setting $h(x)=log tan(x/2)$).
              $endgroup$
              – Henning Makholm
              Dec 20 '18 at 21:54










            • $begingroup$
              Thanks @HenningMakholm. I've added to my answer using a hack: I've used limit.
              $endgroup$
              – Andrei
              Dec 20 '18 at 22:03














            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I think you'll need a special case for $x=pi$ there. (By the way, this fits into the general form I propose in my answer, by setting $h(x)=log tan(x/2)$).
              $endgroup$
              – Henning Makholm
              Dec 20 '18 at 21:54










            • $begingroup$
              Thanks @HenningMakholm. I've added to my answer using a hack: I've used limit.
              $endgroup$
              – Andrei
              Dec 20 '18 at 22:03








            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            I think you'll need a special case for $x=pi$ there. (By the way, this fits into the general form I propose in my answer, by setting $h(x)=log tan(x/2)$).
            $endgroup$
            – Henning Makholm
            Dec 20 '18 at 21:54




            $begingroup$
            I think you'll need a special case for $x=pi$ there. (By the way, this fits into the general form I propose in my answer, by setting $h(x)=log tan(x/2)$).
            $endgroup$
            – Henning Makholm
            Dec 20 '18 at 21:54












            $begingroup$
            Thanks @HenningMakholm. I've added to my answer using a hack: I've used limit.
            $endgroup$
            – Andrei
            Dec 20 '18 at 22:03




            $begingroup$
            Thanks @HenningMakholm. I've added to my answer using a hack: I've used limit.
            $endgroup$
            – Andrei
            Dec 20 '18 at 22:03


















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