Prove: $f$ is a constant function, as $forall a in mathbb{R} exists lim_{x to a}f(x) and forall n :...












2












$begingroup$


Given $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}$ , for every $a in mathbb{R}$ there exists $lim_{x to a}f(x)$.
Also. for every $n in mathbb{N}: frac{1}{n}$ is a period of $f$ such that:
$$forall x in mathbb{R}, forall n in mathbb{N}: f(x) = f(x+ frac{1}{n})$$



Provedisprove: $f$ is a constant function.



my attempt:
I understand that you need to divide the proof for two cases, the first for $x in mathbb{R/Q}$ and the other for $x in mathbb{Q}$.



I can't understand how to formal this ideas.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Given $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}$ , for every $a in mathbb{R}$ there exists $lim_{x to a}f(x)$.
    Also. for every $n in mathbb{N}: frac{1}{n}$ is a period of $f$ such that:
    $$forall x in mathbb{R}, forall n in mathbb{N}: f(x) = f(x+ frac{1}{n})$$



    Provedisprove: $f$ is a constant function.



    my attempt:
    I understand that you need to divide the proof for two cases, the first for $x in mathbb{R/Q}$ and the other for $x in mathbb{Q}$.



    I can't understand how to formal this ideas.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Given $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}$ , for every $a in mathbb{R}$ there exists $lim_{x to a}f(x)$.
      Also. for every $n in mathbb{N}: frac{1}{n}$ is a period of $f$ such that:
      $$forall x in mathbb{R}, forall n in mathbb{N}: f(x) = f(x+ frac{1}{n})$$



      Provedisprove: $f$ is a constant function.



      my attempt:
      I understand that you need to divide the proof for two cases, the first for $x in mathbb{R/Q}$ and the other for $x in mathbb{Q}$.



      I can't understand how to formal this ideas.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Given $f: mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}$ , for every $a in mathbb{R}$ there exists $lim_{x to a}f(x)$.
      Also. for every $n in mathbb{N}: frac{1}{n}$ is a period of $f$ such that:
      $$forall x in mathbb{R}, forall n in mathbb{N}: f(x) = f(x+ frac{1}{n})$$



      Provedisprove: $f$ is a constant function.



      my attempt:
      I understand that you need to divide the proof for two cases, the first for $x in mathbb{R/Q}$ and the other for $x in mathbb{Q}$.



      I can't understand how to formal this ideas.







      real-analysis calculus limits functions






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 16 '18 at 12:50









      Rebellos

      14.5k31246




      14.5k31246










      asked Dec 16 '18 at 12:43









      JnevenJneven

      783320




      783320






















          1 Answer
          1






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          $begingroup$

          Simply observe that
          $$
          f(a) = lim_{ntoinfty} f(a+frac{1}{n}) = lim_{xto a} f(x).$$
          Therefore, $f$ is continuous at every $ainmathbb{R}$. Observe that by the assumption, it holds that
          $$
          f(0) = f(frac{j}{n}),quad forall ninmathbb{N},jin mathbb{Z},
          $$
          and hence that
          $$
          f(q) = f(0),quadforall qinmathbb{Q}.
          $$
          By the continuity of $f$, it follows that
          $$f(x) = f(0),quadforall xinmathbb{R}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Oops, I misread it. But about $f(a) = f(a=frac{1}{n})$, it follows directly from the assumption.
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:53










          • $begingroup$
            @Rebellos The first equality is obvious from the period 1/n. Fixing continuous f on a dense set determines the whole function.
            $endgroup$
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:55











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Simply observe that
          $$
          f(a) = lim_{ntoinfty} f(a+frac{1}{n}) = lim_{xto a} f(x).$$
          Therefore, $f$ is continuous at every $ainmathbb{R}$. Observe that by the assumption, it holds that
          $$
          f(0) = f(frac{j}{n}),quad forall ninmathbb{N},jin mathbb{Z},
          $$
          and hence that
          $$
          f(q) = f(0),quadforall qinmathbb{Q}.
          $$
          By the continuity of $f$, it follows that
          $$f(x) = f(0),quadforall xinmathbb{R}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Oops, I misread it. But about $f(a) = f(a=frac{1}{n})$, it follows directly from the assumption.
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:53










          • $begingroup$
            @Rebellos The first equality is obvious from the period 1/n. Fixing continuous f on a dense set determines the whole function.
            $endgroup$
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:55
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Simply observe that
          $$
          f(a) = lim_{ntoinfty} f(a+frac{1}{n}) = lim_{xto a} f(x).$$
          Therefore, $f$ is continuous at every $ainmathbb{R}$. Observe that by the assumption, it holds that
          $$
          f(0) = f(frac{j}{n}),quad forall ninmathbb{N},jin mathbb{Z},
          $$
          and hence that
          $$
          f(q) = f(0),quadforall qinmathbb{Q}.
          $$
          By the continuity of $f$, it follows that
          $$f(x) = f(0),quadforall xinmathbb{R}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Oops, I misread it. But about $f(a) = f(a=frac{1}{n})$, it follows directly from the assumption.
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:53










          • $begingroup$
            @Rebellos The first equality is obvious from the period 1/n. Fixing continuous f on a dense set determines the whole function.
            $endgroup$
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:55














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Simply observe that
          $$
          f(a) = lim_{ntoinfty} f(a+frac{1}{n}) = lim_{xto a} f(x).$$
          Therefore, $f$ is continuous at every $ainmathbb{R}$. Observe that by the assumption, it holds that
          $$
          f(0) = f(frac{j}{n}),quad forall ninmathbb{N},jin mathbb{Z},
          $$
          and hence that
          $$
          f(q) = f(0),quadforall qinmathbb{Q}.
          $$
          By the continuity of $f$, it follows that
          $$f(x) = f(0),quadforall xinmathbb{R}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Simply observe that
          $$
          f(a) = lim_{ntoinfty} f(a+frac{1}{n}) = lim_{xto a} f(x).$$
          Therefore, $f$ is continuous at every $ainmathbb{R}$. Observe that by the assumption, it holds that
          $$
          f(0) = f(frac{j}{n}),quad forall ninmathbb{N},jin mathbb{Z},
          $$
          and hence that
          $$
          f(q) = f(0),quadforall qinmathbb{Q}.
          $$
          By the continuity of $f$, it follows that
          $$f(x) = f(0),quadforall xinmathbb{R}.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 16 '18 at 13:27

























          answered Dec 16 '18 at 12:48









          SongSong

          8,699625




          8,699625












          • $begingroup$
            Oops, I misread it. But about $f(a) = f(a=frac{1}{n})$, it follows directly from the assumption.
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:53










          • $begingroup$
            @Rebellos The first equality is obvious from the period 1/n. Fixing continuous f on a dense set determines the whole function.
            $endgroup$
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:55


















          • $begingroup$
            Oops, I misread it. But about $f(a) = f(a=frac{1}{n})$, it follows directly from the assumption.
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:53










          • $begingroup$
            @Rebellos The first equality is obvious from the period 1/n. Fixing continuous f on a dense set determines the whole function.
            $endgroup$
            – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
            Dec 16 '18 at 12:55
















          $begingroup$
          Oops, I misread it. But about $f(a) = f(a=frac{1}{n})$, it follows directly from the assumption.
          $endgroup$
          – Song
          Dec 16 '18 at 12:53




          $begingroup$
          Oops, I misread it. But about $f(a) = f(a=frac{1}{n})$, it follows directly from the assumption.
          $endgroup$
          – Song
          Dec 16 '18 at 12:53












          $begingroup$
          @Rebellos The first equality is obvious from the period 1/n. Fixing continuous f on a dense set determines the whole function.
          $endgroup$
          – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
          Dec 16 '18 at 12:55




          $begingroup$
          @Rebellos The first equality is obvious from the period 1/n. Fixing continuous f on a dense set determines the whole function.
          $endgroup$
          – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
          Dec 16 '18 at 12:55


















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