Connection between the circumference/area of circles, and between the volume/surface area of spheres?...












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This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers




Consider the formula for the area of a circle and the formula for its circumference. If one differentiates the formula of the area with respect to $r$ (the radius), the formula for the circle's circumference pops out.



The same applies to a sphere with it's volume and surface area: differentiate the formula for volume with respect to $r$, and you obtain the formula for surface area.



I have two questions about this phenomenon:




  1. Is this an unique property of the circle and sphere?

  2. Is there mathematical reason for this?










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marked as duplicate by grand_chat, Arthur, Ethan Bolker, zipirovich, RRL Dec 27 '18 at 5:19


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  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. This answers question no. 2.
    $endgroup$
    – Bulldocarx
    Dec 26 '18 at 23:54


















1












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers




Consider the formula for the area of a circle and the formula for its circumference. If one differentiates the formula of the area with respect to $r$ (the radius), the formula for the circle's circumference pops out.



The same applies to a sphere with it's volume and surface area: differentiate the formula for volume with respect to $r$, and you obtain the formula for surface area.



I have two questions about this phenomenon:




  1. Is this an unique property of the circle and sphere?

  2. Is there mathematical reason for this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by grand_chat, Arthur, Ethan Bolker, zipirovich, RRL Dec 27 '18 at 5:19


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. This answers question no. 2.
    $endgroup$
    – Bulldocarx
    Dec 26 '18 at 23:54
















1












1








1





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers




Consider the formula for the area of a circle and the formula for its circumference. If one differentiates the formula of the area with respect to $r$ (the radius), the formula for the circle's circumference pops out.



The same applies to a sphere with it's volume and surface area: differentiate the formula for volume with respect to $r$, and you obtain the formula for surface area.



I have two questions about this phenomenon:




  1. Is this an unique property of the circle and sphere?

  2. Is there mathematical reason for this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers




Consider the formula for the area of a circle and the formula for its circumference. If one differentiates the formula of the area with respect to $r$ (the radius), the formula for the circle's circumference pops out.



The same applies to a sphere with it's volume and surface area: differentiate the formula for volume with respect to $r$, and you obtain the formula for surface area.



I have two questions about this phenomenon:




  1. Is this an unique property of the circle and sphere?

  2. Is there mathematical reason for this?





This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers








calculus geometry






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edited Dec 27 '18 at 1:16









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asked Dec 26 '18 at 23:52









BulldocarxBulldocarx

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marked as duplicate by grand_chat, Arthur, Ethan Bolker, zipirovich, RRL Dec 27 '18 at 5:19


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by grand_chat, Arthur, Ethan Bolker, zipirovich, RRL Dec 27 '18 at 5:19


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. This answers question no. 2.
    $endgroup$
    – Bulldocarx
    Dec 26 '18 at 23:54




















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. This answers question no. 2.
    $endgroup$
    – Bulldocarx
    Dec 26 '18 at 23:54


















$begingroup$
Thank you very much. This answers question no. 2.
$endgroup$
– Bulldocarx
Dec 26 '18 at 23:54






$begingroup$
Thank you very much. This answers question no. 2.
$endgroup$
– Bulldocarx
Dec 26 '18 at 23:54












1 Answer
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$begingroup$

I'll begin by answering your questions in somewhat of a reverse order (though depending on your philosophical bend, you could take this first half of my answer as an answer to both). I take the core content from Wolfram MathWorld and Wikipedia.



A foreword, I'm generalizing this to the $n$-dimensional case, to show that this holds for spheres of all dimension.



We will let $V_n$ denote the $n$-dimensional analogue of volume, which the Wolfram article calls "content." To this, there is the analogue of surface area, which we'll call hyper-surface area, and denote $S_n$.



It can be shown that $S_n$ is given by



$$S_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} R^{n-1}$$



and that $V_n$ is given by



$$V_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n$$




Okay, But Where Did The Formulas Come From?: It's only fair to wonder about where these formulas come from, instead of just taking me at my word. I'll link to some resources for the derivations; the explanations are a bit long for this post and may be above your head OP, assuming you're in an introductory calculus class as I suspect.



A derivation of the formula for volume can be found here. Dr. Peyam on YouTube did a derivation of the surface area formula, which can be found here, and includes a similar level of content (but at least more explanation). (He also touches on the volume a bit as well if you want a different explanation.)




If you're unfamiliar with the notation in the formulas above, $Gamma(n)$ is the gamma function, and is just a generalization of the notion of factorial to non-integers. It can be given by an integral, which might be a bit beyond the scope of this discussion. The relation for integers $n$ between $Gamma(n)$ and the factorial is



$$Gamma(n) = (n-1)!$$



For example, $Gamma(2) = (2-1)! = 1! = 1$. (The gamma function also has the property I see not used as well as it could be in the various links that $Gamma(n+1) = nGamma(n)$. This is essentially the recursion of the factorial, i.e. $n! = ncdot (n-1)!$.)



To convince yourself of these formulas, try a few $n$ individually: let $n=2$ to find $V_n$ (area of a circle) and $S_n$ (its circumference), for example.



In any event, to see that the derivative of content yields hyper-surface area here, note:



$$frac{d}{dR} V_n = frac{d}{dR} left( frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n right) = n cdot frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = S_n$$



What this hints at is that this is a property of the $n$-dimensional sphere, i.e. that a property of $n$-spheres is precisely that their "content", differentiated, yields their hyper-surface area.



This presumably answers your second question regarding "is there a mathematical reason for this fact," that being it is a property of the $n$-sphere.





As for your first question, this is noted in several different ways in the question linked as a duplicate. I favor the answer by Helmer.Aslaksen, which cites a paper which can be found here:.



The bit essential to your first question is that, no, this is not a property unique to the sphere. For any shape with area able to be written as $A(s) = cs^2$ for some constant $c$ and parameter $s$ (such as side length or radius), and $P(s) = ks$ denoting the perimeter about it, a parameterization of $x = 2cs/k$ will let us have



$$frac{d}{dx} A(x) = P(x)$$



Whether this might hold in higher dimensions, I'm uncertain. At least in $2D$ space though, it holds for shapes such as squares and ellipses.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    I'll begin by answering your questions in somewhat of a reverse order (though depending on your philosophical bend, you could take this first half of my answer as an answer to both). I take the core content from Wolfram MathWorld and Wikipedia.



    A foreword, I'm generalizing this to the $n$-dimensional case, to show that this holds for spheres of all dimension.



    We will let $V_n$ denote the $n$-dimensional analogue of volume, which the Wolfram article calls "content." To this, there is the analogue of surface area, which we'll call hyper-surface area, and denote $S_n$.



    It can be shown that $S_n$ is given by



    $$S_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} R^{n-1}$$



    and that $V_n$ is given by



    $$V_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n$$




    Okay, But Where Did The Formulas Come From?: It's only fair to wonder about where these formulas come from, instead of just taking me at my word. I'll link to some resources for the derivations; the explanations are a bit long for this post and may be above your head OP, assuming you're in an introductory calculus class as I suspect.



    A derivation of the formula for volume can be found here. Dr. Peyam on YouTube did a derivation of the surface area formula, which can be found here, and includes a similar level of content (but at least more explanation). (He also touches on the volume a bit as well if you want a different explanation.)




    If you're unfamiliar with the notation in the formulas above, $Gamma(n)$ is the gamma function, and is just a generalization of the notion of factorial to non-integers. It can be given by an integral, which might be a bit beyond the scope of this discussion. The relation for integers $n$ between $Gamma(n)$ and the factorial is



    $$Gamma(n) = (n-1)!$$



    For example, $Gamma(2) = (2-1)! = 1! = 1$. (The gamma function also has the property I see not used as well as it could be in the various links that $Gamma(n+1) = nGamma(n)$. This is essentially the recursion of the factorial, i.e. $n! = ncdot (n-1)!$.)



    To convince yourself of these formulas, try a few $n$ individually: let $n=2$ to find $V_n$ (area of a circle) and $S_n$ (its circumference), for example.



    In any event, to see that the derivative of content yields hyper-surface area here, note:



    $$frac{d}{dR} V_n = frac{d}{dR} left( frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n right) = n cdot frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = S_n$$



    What this hints at is that this is a property of the $n$-dimensional sphere, i.e. that a property of $n$-spheres is precisely that their "content", differentiated, yields their hyper-surface area.



    This presumably answers your second question regarding "is there a mathematical reason for this fact," that being it is a property of the $n$-sphere.





    As for your first question, this is noted in several different ways in the question linked as a duplicate. I favor the answer by Helmer.Aslaksen, which cites a paper which can be found here:.



    The bit essential to your first question is that, no, this is not a property unique to the sphere. For any shape with area able to be written as $A(s) = cs^2$ for some constant $c$ and parameter $s$ (such as side length or radius), and $P(s) = ks$ denoting the perimeter about it, a parameterization of $x = 2cs/k$ will let us have



    $$frac{d}{dx} A(x) = P(x)$$



    Whether this might hold in higher dimensions, I'm uncertain. At least in $2D$ space though, it holds for shapes such as squares and ellipses.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      I'll begin by answering your questions in somewhat of a reverse order (though depending on your philosophical bend, you could take this first half of my answer as an answer to both). I take the core content from Wolfram MathWorld and Wikipedia.



      A foreword, I'm generalizing this to the $n$-dimensional case, to show that this holds for spheres of all dimension.



      We will let $V_n$ denote the $n$-dimensional analogue of volume, which the Wolfram article calls "content." To this, there is the analogue of surface area, which we'll call hyper-surface area, and denote $S_n$.



      It can be shown that $S_n$ is given by



      $$S_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} R^{n-1}$$



      and that $V_n$ is given by



      $$V_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n$$




      Okay, But Where Did The Formulas Come From?: It's only fair to wonder about where these formulas come from, instead of just taking me at my word. I'll link to some resources for the derivations; the explanations are a bit long for this post and may be above your head OP, assuming you're in an introductory calculus class as I suspect.



      A derivation of the formula for volume can be found here. Dr. Peyam on YouTube did a derivation of the surface area formula, which can be found here, and includes a similar level of content (but at least more explanation). (He also touches on the volume a bit as well if you want a different explanation.)




      If you're unfamiliar with the notation in the formulas above, $Gamma(n)$ is the gamma function, and is just a generalization of the notion of factorial to non-integers. It can be given by an integral, which might be a bit beyond the scope of this discussion. The relation for integers $n$ between $Gamma(n)$ and the factorial is



      $$Gamma(n) = (n-1)!$$



      For example, $Gamma(2) = (2-1)! = 1! = 1$. (The gamma function also has the property I see not used as well as it could be in the various links that $Gamma(n+1) = nGamma(n)$. This is essentially the recursion of the factorial, i.e. $n! = ncdot (n-1)!$.)



      To convince yourself of these formulas, try a few $n$ individually: let $n=2$ to find $V_n$ (area of a circle) and $S_n$ (its circumference), for example.



      In any event, to see that the derivative of content yields hyper-surface area here, note:



      $$frac{d}{dR} V_n = frac{d}{dR} left( frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n right) = n cdot frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = S_n$$



      What this hints at is that this is a property of the $n$-dimensional sphere, i.e. that a property of $n$-spheres is precisely that their "content", differentiated, yields their hyper-surface area.



      This presumably answers your second question regarding "is there a mathematical reason for this fact," that being it is a property of the $n$-sphere.





      As for your first question, this is noted in several different ways in the question linked as a duplicate. I favor the answer by Helmer.Aslaksen, which cites a paper which can be found here:.



      The bit essential to your first question is that, no, this is not a property unique to the sphere. For any shape with area able to be written as $A(s) = cs^2$ for some constant $c$ and parameter $s$ (such as side length or radius), and $P(s) = ks$ denoting the perimeter about it, a parameterization of $x = 2cs/k$ will let us have



      $$frac{d}{dx} A(x) = P(x)$$



      Whether this might hold in higher dimensions, I'm uncertain. At least in $2D$ space though, it holds for shapes such as squares and ellipses.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        I'll begin by answering your questions in somewhat of a reverse order (though depending on your philosophical bend, you could take this first half of my answer as an answer to both). I take the core content from Wolfram MathWorld and Wikipedia.



        A foreword, I'm generalizing this to the $n$-dimensional case, to show that this holds for spheres of all dimension.



        We will let $V_n$ denote the $n$-dimensional analogue of volume, which the Wolfram article calls "content." To this, there is the analogue of surface area, which we'll call hyper-surface area, and denote $S_n$.



        It can be shown that $S_n$ is given by



        $$S_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} R^{n-1}$$



        and that $V_n$ is given by



        $$V_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n$$




        Okay, But Where Did The Formulas Come From?: It's only fair to wonder about where these formulas come from, instead of just taking me at my word. I'll link to some resources for the derivations; the explanations are a bit long for this post and may be above your head OP, assuming you're in an introductory calculus class as I suspect.



        A derivation of the formula for volume can be found here. Dr. Peyam on YouTube did a derivation of the surface area formula, which can be found here, and includes a similar level of content (but at least more explanation). (He also touches on the volume a bit as well if you want a different explanation.)




        If you're unfamiliar with the notation in the formulas above, $Gamma(n)$ is the gamma function, and is just a generalization of the notion of factorial to non-integers. It can be given by an integral, which might be a bit beyond the scope of this discussion. The relation for integers $n$ between $Gamma(n)$ and the factorial is



        $$Gamma(n) = (n-1)!$$



        For example, $Gamma(2) = (2-1)! = 1! = 1$. (The gamma function also has the property I see not used as well as it could be in the various links that $Gamma(n+1) = nGamma(n)$. This is essentially the recursion of the factorial, i.e. $n! = ncdot (n-1)!$.)



        To convince yourself of these formulas, try a few $n$ individually: let $n=2$ to find $V_n$ (area of a circle) and $S_n$ (its circumference), for example.



        In any event, to see that the derivative of content yields hyper-surface area here, note:



        $$frac{d}{dR} V_n = frac{d}{dR} left( frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n right) = n cdot frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = S_n$$



        What this hints at is that this is a property of the $n$-dimensional sphere, i.e. that a property of $n$-spheres is precisely that their "content", differentiated, yields their hyper-surface area.



        This presumably answers your second question regarding "is there a mathematical reason for this fact," that being it is a property of the $n$-sphere.





        As for your first question, this is noted in several different ways in the question linked as a duplicate. I favor the answer by Helmer.Aslaksen, which cites a paper which can be found here:.



        The bit essential to your first question is that, no, this is not a property unique to the sphere. For any shape with area able to be written as $A(s) = cs^2$ for some constant $c$ and parameter $s$ (such as side length or radius), and $P(s) = ks$ denoting the perimeter about it, a parameterization of $x = 2cs/k$ will let us have



        $$frac{d}{dx} A(x) = P(x)$$



        Whether this might hold in higher dimensions, I'm uncertain. At least in $2D$ space though, it holds for shapes such as squares and ellipses.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I'll begin by answering your questions in somewhat of a reverse order (though depending on your philosophical bend, you could take this first half of my answer as an answer to both). I take the core content from Wolfram MathWorld and Wikipedia.



        A foreword, I'm generalizing this to the $n$-dimensional case, to show that this holds for spheres of all dimension.



        We will let $V_n$ denote the $n$-dimensional analogue of volume, which the Wolfram article calls "content." To this, there is the analogue of surface area, which we'll call hyper-surface area, and denote $S_n$.



        It can be shown that $S_n$ is given by



        $$S_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} R^{n-1}$$



        and that $V_n$ is given by



        $$V_n = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n$$




        Okay, But Where Did The Formulas Come From?: It's only fair to wonder about where these formulas come from, instead of just taking me at my word. I'll link to some resources for the derivations; the explanations are a bit long for this post and may be above your head OP, assuming you're in an introductory calculus class as I suspect.



        A derivation of the formula for volume can be found here. Dr. Peyam on YouTube did a derivation of the surface area formula, which can be found here, and includes a similar level of content (but at least more explanation). (He also touches on the volume a bit as well if you want a different explanation.)




        If you're unfamiliar with the notation in the formulas above, $Gamma(n)$ is the gamma function, and is just a generalization of the notion of factorial to non-integers. It can be given by an integral, which might be a bit beyond the scope of this discussion. The relation for integers $n$ between $Gamma(n)$ and the factorial is



        $$Gamma(n) = (n-1)!$$



        For example, $Gamma(2) = (2-1)! = 1! = 1$. (The gamma function also has the property I see not used as well as it could be in the various links that $Gamma(n+1) = nGamma(n)$. This is essentially the recursion of the factorial, i.e. $n! = ncdot (n-1)!$.)



        To convince yourself of these formulas, try a few $n$ individually: let $n=2$ to find $V_n$ (area of a circle) and $S_n$ (its circumference), for example.



        In any event, to see that the derivative of content yields hyper-surface area here, note:



        $$frac{d}{dR} V_n = frac{d}{dR} left( frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} R^n right) = n cdot frac{2pi^{n/2}}{nGamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = frac{2pi^{n/2}}{Gamma left(frac n2 right)} cdot R^{n-1} = S_n$$



        What this hints at is that this is a property of the $n$-dimensional sphere, i.e. that a property of $n$-spheres is precisely that their "content", differentiated, yields their hyper-surface area.



        This presumably answers your second question regarding "is there a mathematical reason for this fact," that being it is a property of the $n$-sphere.





        As for your first question, this is noted in several different ways in the question linked as a duplicate. I favor the answer by Helmer.Aslaksen, which cites a paper which can be found here:.



        The bit essential to your first question is that, no, this is not a property unique to the sphere. For any shape with area able to be written as $A(s) = cs^2$ for some constant $c$ and parameter $s$ (such as side length or radius), and $P(s) = ks$ denoting the perimeter about it, a parameterization of $x = 2cs/k$ will let us have



        $$frac{d}{dx} A(x) = P(x)$$



        Whether this might hold in higher dimensions, I'm uncertain. At least in $2D$ space though, it holds for shapes such as squares and ellipses.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 27 '18 at 1:10









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