$lim limits_{n to infty} left(1-frac1{n^2}right)^{n}$ equals
The limit $lim limits_{n to infty} bigg(1-dfrac{1}{n^2}bigg)^{n}$ equals?
$(A) e^{-1}$
$(B) e^{-frac{1}{2}}$
$(C) e^{-2}$
$(D) 1$
Using the expansion $(1+x)^{n}=1+nx+ dfrac{n(n-1)x^{2}}{2!} ...$
I am having large degree of $n$ in denominator therefor i am left with $1$ after applying the limit. Did i do it right ? If i did it right is there any alternative method to solve this problem like a quick version?
limits exponential-function
add a comment |
The limit $lim limits_{n to infty} bigg(1-dfrac{1}{n^2}bigg)^{n}$ equals?
$(A) e^{-1}$
$(B) e^{-frac{1}{2}}$
$(C) e^{-2}$
$(D) 1$
Using the expansion $(1+x)^{n}=1+nx+ dfrac{n(n-1)x^{2}}{2!} ...$
I am having large degree of $n$ in denominator therefor i am left with $1$ after applying the limit. Did i do it right ? If i did it right is there any alternative method to solve this problem like a quick version?
limits exponential-function
add a comment |
The limit $lim limits_{n to infty} bigg(1-dfrac{1}{n^2}bigg)^{n}$ equals?
$(A) e^{-1}$
$(B) e^{-frac{1}{2}}$
$(C) e^{-2}$
$(D) 1$
Using the expansion $(1+x)^{n}=1+nx+ dfrac{n(n-1)x^{2}}{2!} ...$
I am having large degree of $n$ in denominator therefor i am left with $1$ after applying the limit. Did i do it right ? If i did it right is there any alternative method to solve this problem like a quick version?
limits exponential-function
The limit $lim limits_{n to infty} bigg(1-dfrac{1}{n^2}bigg)^{n}$ equals?
$(A) e^{-1}$
$(B) e^{-frac{1}{2}}$
$(C) e^{-2}$
$(D) 1$
Using the expansion $(1+x)^{n}=1+nx+ dfrac{n(n-1)x^{2}}{2!} ...$
I am having large degree of $n$ in denominator therefor i am left with $1$ after applying the limit. Did i do it right ? If i did it right is there any alternative method to solve this problem like a quick version?
limits exponential-function
limits exponential-function
edited Dec 9 at 11:03
Martin Sleziak
44.7k7115270
44.7k7115270
asked Feb 5 at 11:01
Daman deep
643218
643218
add a comment |
add a comment |
4 Answers
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Yes, $lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^nleft(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(left(1+frac{1}{-n}right)^{-n}right)^{-1}lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=e^{-1}cdot e=1$
It looks so easy now. How did miss that anyways thanks:)
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:12
1
@Damn1o1 I don't know if you were supposed to solve the problem that way, but at least it serves as a good way to check your result that you may have obtained differently.
– user491874
Feb 5 at 11:16
No it was best I am building up speed for MCQ exam i shouldn't miss these types of catch. I guess they come with experience.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:18
add a comment |
$1-frac{1}{n^2} to 1$ and $n to infty$, so:
$$lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}-1right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(-frac{1}{n^2}right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}-frac{1}{n}right)=exp(-0)=exp(0)=1$$
add a comment |
Hint:
$$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n=left(lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+dfrac1{-n^2}right)^{-n^2}right)^{lim_{ntoinfty}-1/n}$$
Set $x=1$ in About $lim left(1+frac {x}{n}right)^n$
How did you do that with power i don't understand.That makes it $n^3$
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:06
@Damn1o1, Sorry for the typo
– lab bhattacharjee
Feb 5 at 11:07
Ohh inside part is $e$ and $e^{-frac{1}{n}}$ makes it 1 yes thank you.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:09
add a comment |
By Bernoulli: $ left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n ge 1-frac{1}{n}$, hence
$$1-frac{1}{n} le left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n le 1.$$
Conclusion ?
add a comment |
Your Answer
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4 Answers
4
active
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
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Yes, $lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^nleft(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(left(1+frac{1}{-n}right)^{-n}right)^{-1}lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=e^{-1}cdot e=1$
It looks so easy now. How did miss that anyways thanks:)
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:12
1
@Damn1o1 I don't know if you were supposed to solve the problem that way, but at least it serves as a good way to check your result that you may have obtained differently.
– user491874
Feb 5 at 11:16
No it was best I am building up speed for MCQ exam i shouldn't miss these types of catch. I guess they come with experience.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:18
add a comment |
Yes, $lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^nleft(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(left(1+frac{1}{-n}right)^{-n}right)^{-1}lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=e^{-1}cdot e=1$
It looks so easy now. How did miss that anyways thanks:)
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:12
1
@Damn1o1 I don't know if you were supposed to solve the problem that way, but at least it serves as a good way to check your result that you may have obtained differently.
– user491874
Feb 5 at 11:16
No it was best I am building up speed for MCQ exam i shouldn't miss these types of catch. I guess they come with experience.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:18
add a comment |
Yes, $lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^nleft(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(left(1+frac{1}{-n}right)^{-n}right)^{-1}lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=e^{-1}cdot e=1$
Yes, $lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^nleft(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=lim_{ntoinfty}left(left(1+frac{1}{-n}right)^{-n}right)^{-1}lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^n=e^{-1}cdot e=1$
answered Feb 5 at 11:05
user491874
It looks so easy now. How did miss that anyways thanks:)
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:12
1
@Damn1o1 I don't know if you were supposed to solve the problem that way, but at least it serves as a good way to check your result that you may have obtained differently.
– user491874
Feb 5 at 11:16
No it was best I am building up speed for MCQ exam i shouldn't miss these types of catch. I guess they come with experience.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:18
add a comment |
It looks so easy now. How did miss that anyways thanks:)
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:12
1
@Damn1o1 I don't know if you were supposed to solve the problem that way, but at least it serves as a good way to check your result that you may have obtained differently.
– user491874
Feb 5 at 11:16
No it was best I am building up speed for MCQ exam i shouldn't miss these types of catch. I guess they come with experience.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:18
It looks so easy now. How did miss that anyways thanks:)
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:12
It looks so easy now. How did miss that anyways thanks:)
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:12
1
1
@Damn1o1 I don't know if you were supposed to solve the problem that way, but at least it serves as a good way to check your result that you may have obtained differently.
– user491874
Feb 5 at 11:16
@Damn1o1 I don't know if you were supposed to solve the problem that way, but at least it serves as a good way to check your result that you may have obtained differently.
– user491874
Feb 5 at 11:16
No it was best I am building up speed for MCQ exam i shouldn't miss these types of catch. I guess they come with experience.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:18
No it was best I am building up speed for MCQ exam i shouldn't miss these types of catch. I guess they come with experience.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:18
add a comment |
$1-frac{1}{n^2} to 1$ and $n to infty$, so:
$$lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}-1right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(-frac{1}{n^2}right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}-frac{1}{n}right)=exp(-0)=exp(0)=1$$
add a comment |
$1-frac{1}{n^2} to 1$ and $n to infty$, so:
$$lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}-1right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(-frac{1}{n^2}right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}-frac{1}{n}right)=exp(-0)=exp(0)=1$$
add a comment |
$1-frac{1}{n^2} to 1$ and $n to infty$, so:
$$lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}-1right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(-frac{1}{n^2}right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}-frac{1}{n}right)=exp(-0)=exp(0)=1$$
$1-frac{1}{n^2} to 1$ and $n to infty$, so:
$$lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}right)^n=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(1-frac{1}{n^2}-1right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}left(-frac{1}{n^2}right)nright)=expleft(lim_{n to infty}-frac{1}{n}right)=exp(-0)=exp(0)=1$$
answered Feb 5 at 11:20
Botond
5,5232732
5,5232732
add a comment |
add a comment |
Hint:
$$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n=left(lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+dfrac1{-n^2}right)^{-n^2}right)^{lim_{ntoinfty}-1/n}$$
Set $x=1$ in About $lim left(1+frac {x}{n}right)^n$
How did you do that with power i don't understand.That makes it $n^3$
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:06
@Damn1o1, Sorry for the typo
– lab bhattacharjee
Feb 5 at 11:07
Ohh inside part is $e$ and $e^{-frac{1}{n}}$ makes it 1 yes thank you.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:09
add a comment |
Hint:
$$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n=left(lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+dfrac1{-n^2}right)^{-n^2}right)^{lim_{ntoinfty}-1/n}$$
Set $x=1$ in About $lim left(1+frac {x}{n}right)^n$
How did you do that with power i don't understand.That makes it $n^3$
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:06
@Damn1o1, Sorry for the typo
– lab bhattacharjee
Feb 5 at 11:07
Ohh inside part is $e$ and $e^{-frac{1}{n}}$ makes it 1 yes thank you.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:09
add a comment |
Hint:
$$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n=left(lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+dfrac1{-n^2}right)^{-n^2}right)^{lim_{ntoinfty}-1/n}$$
Set $x=1$ in About $lim left(1+frac {x}{n}right)^n$
Hint:
$$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n=left(lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+dfrac1{-n^2}right)^{-n^2}right)^{lim_{ntoinfty}-1/n}$$
Set $x=1$ in About $lim left(1+frac {x}{n}right)^n$
edited Feb 5 at 11:07
answered Feb 5 at 11:03
lab bhattacharjee
223k15156274
223k15156274
How did you do that with power i don't understand.That makes it $n^3$
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:06
@Damn1o1, Sorry for the typo
– lab bhattacharjee
Feb 5 at 11:07
Ohh inside part is $e$ and $e^{-frac{1}{n}}$ makes it 1 yes thank you.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:09
add a comment |
How did you do that with power i don't understand.That makes it $n^3$
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:06
@Damn1o1, Sorry for the typo
– lab bhattacharjee
Feb 5 at 11:07
Ohh inside part is $e$ and $e^{-frac{1}{n}}$ makes it 1 yes thank you.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:09
How did you do that with power i don't understand.That makes it $n^3$
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:06
How did you do that with power i don't understand.That makes it $n^3$
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:06
@Damn1o1, Sorry for the typo
– lab bhattacharjee
Feb 5 at 11:07
@Damn1o1, Sorry for the typo
– lab bhattacharjee
Feb 5 at 11:07
Ohh inside part is $e$ and $e^{-frac{1}{n}}$ makes it 1 yes thank you.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:09
Ohh inside part is $e$ and $e^{-frac{1}{n}}$ makes it 1 yes thank you.
– Daman deep
Feb 5 at 11:09
add a comment |
By Bernoulli: $ left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n ge 1-frac{1}{n}$, hence
$$1-frac{1}{n} le left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n le 1.$$
Conclusion ?
add a comment |
By Bernoulli: $ left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n ge 1-frac{1}{n}$, hence
$$1-frac{1}{n} le left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n le 1.$$
Conclusion ?
add a comment |
By Bernoulli: $ left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n ge 1-frac{1}{n}$, hence
$$1-frac{1}{n} le left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n le 1.$$
Conclusion ?
By Bernoulli: $ left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n ge 1-frac{1}{n}$, hence
$$1-frac{1}{n} le left(1-dfrac1{n^2}right)^n le 1.$$
Conclusion ?
answered Feb 5 at 12:04
Fred
44.2k1845
44.2k1845
add a comment |
add a comment |
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