exterior derivative of the flow
$begingroup$
Let $E(x, y, z) = (x, y, z)$ be a vector field on $mathbb{R}^3$.
$α(x, y, z) = x dy ∧ dz − y dx ∧ dz + z dx ∧ dy$ is a 2-form.
Find $phi^{t*}_Ealpha$.
The flow of X is $phi^t = (x_0e^t,y_0e^t,z_0e^t)$.
I need to compute $dphi_t^{*}$ as $phi_t^{*}alpha = alpha_{phi_t}(d phi_{t})$.
1) Is the pullbak of a k-form always a k-form?
2) If we consider $phi_{t}$ as a 1-form, $dphi_{t}$ is a 2-form, how to compute it?
Thank you for your help!
differential-geometry
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $E(x, y, z) = (x, y, z)$ be a vector field on $mathbb{R}^3$.
$α(x, y, z) = x dy ∧ dz − y dx ∧ dz + z dx ∧ dy$ is a 2-form.
Find $phi^{t*}_Ealpha$.
The flow of X is $phi^t = (x_0e^t,y_0e^t,z_0e^t)$.
I need to compute $dphi_t^{*}$ as $phi_t^{*}alpha = alpha_{phi_t}(d phi_{t})$.
1) Is the pullbak of a k-form always a k-form?
2) If we consider $phi_{t}$ as a 1-form, $dphi_{t}$ is a 2-form, how to compute it?
Thank you for your help!
differential-geometry
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
How are you arriving at thinking of $phi_t$ (which is a diffeomorphism of $Bbb R^3$) as a $1$-form? That's not remotely correct. There's a difference between a function and a vector field (which is naturally dual to a $1$-form). You compute pullback the way you compute pullback by any function.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 21:30
$begingroup$
Indeed! $phi_t$ is just a diffeomorphism. However, we can still view $dphi_t$ as a 1-form right?
$endgroup$
– PerelMan
Dec 24 '18 at 23:28
1
$begingroup$
Because we are living on $Bbb R^3$ and not a general manifold, yes, it’s a vector-valued $1$-form.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 23:33
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $E(x, y, z) = (x, y, z)$ be a vector field on $mathbb{R}^3$.
$α(x, y, z) = x dy ∧ dz − y dx ∧ dz + z dx ∧ dy$ is a 2-form.
Find $phi^{t*}_Ealpha$.
The flow of X is $phi^t = (x_0e^t,y_0e^t,z_0e^t)$.
I need to compute $dphi_t^{*}$ as $phi_t^{*}alpha = alpha_{phi_t}(d phi_{t})$.
1) Is the pullbak of a k-form always a k-form?
2) If we consider $phi_{t}$ as a 1-form, $dphi_{t}$ is a 2-form, how to compute it?
Thank you for your help!
differential-geometry
$endgroup$
Let $E(x, y, z) = (x, y, z)$ be a vector field on $mathbb{R}^3$.
$α(x, y, z) = x dy ∧ dz − y dx ∧ dz + z dx ∧ dy$ is a 2-form.
Find $phi^{t*}_Ealpha$.
The flow of X is $phi^t = (x_0e^t,y_0e^t,z_0e^t)$.
I need to compute $dphi_t^{*}$ as $phi_t^{*}alpha = alpha_{phi_t}(d phi_{t})$.
1) Is the pullbak of a k-form always a k-form?
2) If we consider $phi_{t}$ as a 1-form, $dphi_{t}$ is a 2-form, how to compute it?
Thank you for your help!
differential-geometry
differential-geometry
asked Dec 24 '18 at 17:24
PerelManPerelMan
538311
538311
1
$begingroup$
How are you arriving at thinking of $phi_t$ (which is a diffeomorphism of $Bbb R^3$) as a $1$-form? That's not remotely correct. There's a difference between a function and a vector field (which is naturally dual to a $1$-form). You compute pullback the way you compute pullback by any function.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 21:30
$begingroup$
Indeed! $phi_t$ is just a diffeomorphism. However, we can still view $dphi_t$ as a 1-form right?
$endgroup$
– PerelMan
Dec 24 '18 at 23:28
1
$begingroup$
Because we are living on $Bbb R^3$ and not a general manifold, yes, it’s a vector-valued $1$-form.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 23:33
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
How are you arriving at thinking of $phi_t$ (which is a diffeomorphism of $Bbb R^3$) as a $1$-form? That's not remotely correct. There's a difference between a function and a vector field (which is naturally dual to a $1$-form). You compute pullback the way you compute pullback by any function.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 21:30
$begingroup$
Indeed! $phi_t$ is just a diffeomorphism. However, we can still view $dphi_t$ as a 1-form right?
$endgroup$
– PerelMan
Dec 24 '18 at 23:28
1
$begingroup$
Because we are living on $Bbb R^3$ and not a general manifold, yes, it’s a vector-valued $1$-form.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 23:33
1
1
$begingroup$
How are you arriving at thinking of $phi_t$ (which is a diffeomorphism of $Bbb R^3$) as a $1$-form? That's not remotely correct. There's a difference between a function and a vector field (which is naturally dual to a $1$-form). You compute pullback the way you compute pullback by any function.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 21:30
$begingroup$
How are you arriving at thinking of $phi_t$ (which is a diffeomorphism of $Bbb R^3$) as a $1$-form? That's not remotely correct. There's a difference between a function and a vector field (which is naturally dual to a $1$-form). You compute pullback the way you compute pullback by any function.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 21:30
$begingroup$
Indeed! $phi_t$ is just a diffeomorphism. However, we can still view $dphi_t$ as a 1-form right?
$endgroup$
– PerelMan
Dec 24 '18 at 23:28
$begingroup$
Indeed! $phi_t$ is just a diffeomorphism. However, we can still view $dphi_t$ as a 1-form right?
$endgroup$
– PerelMan
Dec 24 '18 at 23:28
1
1
$begingroup$
Because we are living on $Bbb R^3$ and not a general manifold, yes, it’s a vector-valued $1$-form.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 23:33
$begingroup$
Because we are living on $Bbb R^3$ and not a general manifold, yes, it’s a vector-valued $1$-form.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 23:33
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
$begingroup$
I will partially answer my question.
For $2)$ :
Let $v,w$ be two vectors of $mathbb{R}^3$. Let u be a point in $mathbb{R}^3$.
The usual expression of the pullback gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(phi_t(u))(d phi_t(u).v, d phi_t(u).w)$
Which gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(e^tu)(ve^t, we^t) = e^{3t}alpha(u)(v,w)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I will partially answer my question.
For $2)$ :
Let $v,w$ be two vectors of $mathbb{R}^3$. Let u be a point in $mathbb{R}^3$.
The usual expression of the pullback gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(phi_t(u))(d phi_t(u).v, d phi_t(u).w)$
Which gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(e^tu)(ve^t, we^t) = e^{3t}alpha(u)(v,w)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I will partially answer my question.
For $2)$ :
Let $v,w$ be two vectors of $mathbb{R}^3$. Let u be a point in $mathbb{R}^3$.
The usual expression of the pullback gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(phi_t(u))(d phi_t(u).v, d phi_t(u).w)$
Which gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(e^tu)(ve^t, we^t) = e^{3t}alpha(u)(v,w)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I will partially answer my question.
For $2)$ :
Let $v,w$ be two vectors of $mathbb{R}^3$. Let u be a point in $mathbb{R}^3$.
The usual expression of the pullback gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(phi_t(u))(d phi_t(u).v, d phi_t(u).w)$
Which gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(e^tu)(ve^t, we^t) = e^{3t}alpha(u)(v,w)$.
$endgroup$
I will partially answer my question.
For $2)$ :
Let $v,w$ be two vectors of $mathbb{R}^3$. Let u be a point in $mathbb{R}^3$.
The usual expression of the pullback gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(phi_t(u))(d phi_t(u).v, d phi_t(u).w)$
Which gives:
$phi_t^* alpha(u)(v,w) = alpha(e^tu)(ve^t, we^t) = e^{3t}alpha(u)(v,w)$.
answered Dec 24 '18 at 23:41
PerelManPerelMan
538311
538311
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
How are you arriving at thinking of $phi_t$ (which is a diffeomorphism of $Bbb R^3$) as a $1$-form? That's not remotely correct. There's a difference between a function and a vector field (which is naturally dual to a $1$-form). You compute pullback the way you compute pullback by any function.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 21:30
$begingroup$
Indeed! $phi_t$ is just a diffeomorphism. However, we can still view $dphi_t$ as a 1-form right?
$endgroup$
– PerelMan
Dec 24 '18 at 23:28
1
$begingroup$
Because we are living on $Bbb R^3$ and not a general manifold, yes, it’s a vector-valued $1$-form.
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Dec 24 '18 at 23:33