Prove that $f$ is additive if $f(x)f(x-y)+f(y)f(x+y)= f(x)^2+f(y)^2$












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Say $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ is non-constant such that $$f(x)f(x-y)+f(y)f(x+y)= f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
Prove that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$.






If we put $a=f(0)$ and $y=0$ we get $$f(x)^2+af(x)= f(x)^2+a^2 implies af(x) = a^2$$
If $ane 0$ then $f(x)=a$ is constant function which can not be, so $a=0$. Now if we put $x=y$ we get $$f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2$$



From here I have no more idea what to do.





Edit after Lulu's comment: If we put also $y=-x$ we get $$2f(x)^2= f(x)f(2x) = f(x)^2+f(-x)^2implies boxed{f(x)^2=f(-x)^2}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    8












    $begingroup$



    Say $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ is non-constant such that $$f(x)f(x-y)+f(y)f(x+y)= f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
    Prove that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$.






    If we put $a=f(0)$ and $y=0$ we get $$f(x)^2+af(x)= f(x)^2+a^2 implies af(x) = a^2$$
    If $ane 0$ then $f(x)=a$ is constant function which can not be, so $a=0$. Now if we put $x=y$ we get $$f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2$$



    From here I have no more idea what to do.





    Edit after Lulu's comment: If we put also $y=-x$ we get $$2f(x)^2= f(x)f(2x) = f(x)^2+f(-x)^2implies boxed{f(x)^2=f(-x)^2}$$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      8












      8








      8


      3



      $begingroup$



      Say $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ is non-constant such that $$f(x)f(x-y)+f(y)f(x+y)= f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
      Prove that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$.






      If we put $a=f(0)$ and $y=0$ we get $$f(x)^2+af(x)= f(x)^2+a^2 implies af(x) = a^2$$
      If $ane 0$ then $f(x)=a$ is constant function which can not be, so $a=0$. Now if we put $x=y$ we get $$f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2$$



      From here I have no more idea what to do.





      Edit after Lulu's comment: If we put also $y=-x$ we get $$2f(x)^2= f(x)f(2x) = f(x)^2+f(-x)^2implies boxed{f(x)^2=f(-x)^2}$$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Say $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ is non-constant such that $$f(x)f(x-y)+f(y)f(x+y)= f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
      Prove that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$.






      If we put $a=f(0)$ and $y=0$ we get $$f(x)^2+af(x)= f(x)^2+a^2 implies af(x) = a^2$$
      If $ane 0$ then $f(x)=a$ is constant function which can not be, so $a=0$. Now if we put $x=y$ we get $$f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2$$



      From here I have no more idea what to do.





      Edit after Lulu's comment: If we put also $y=-x$ we get $$2f(x)^2= f(x)f(2x) = f(x)^2+f(-x)^2implies boxed{f(x)^2=f(-x)^2}$$







      contest-math functional-equations






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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 24 '18 at 17:25







      greedoid

















      asked Nov 2 '18 at 19:05









      greedoidgreedoid

      41.7k1151102




      41.7k1151102






















          2 Answers
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          1












          $begingroup$

          This is only part of an answer, as I can't prove that $f$ is even or odd.



          First, we want to show that $f$ is either even or odd, given $f(x)^2 = f(-x)^2$.



          Say there are two points $x$ and $y$ such that $f(x) = f(-x)$ and $f(y) = -f(-y)$. Then, $f(x)f(x-y) + f(x+y) = f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and, by plugging in $-x,y$, we get $$f(-x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(-x)^2 + f(y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y^2)$$ so we have $$f(x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(x)f(x-y) + f(y)f(x+y)$$





          We now take cases on if $x+y$ and $y-x$ are odd or even.



          If they are both even, then we have $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$ or $f(x) = f(y)$ by factorization, which is constant. If they are both odd, Then $f(x) = -f(y)$ or $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, which still both are contradictions.



          Therefore, one has to be even and one has to be odd. I don't see any way to continue from here; so I skip to the part where they are either even or odd.





          Now, we show that $f(x)$ is odd.
          We know that $f(x)f(x−y)+f(y)f(x+y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and by plugging in $-y$ in for $y$, we get $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y)^2$, since $f(-y)^2 = f(y)^2$ and therefore $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)f(x+y) - f(-y)f(x-y)$$



          Now, we know that $f$ is either odd or even (or assume it for now). However, if $f$ is even, then we have $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)(f(x+y) - f(x-y))$$ So either $f(x) = f(y)$, contradiction, or $f(x+y) - f(x-y) = 0 implies f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, and because $x+y$ and $x-y$ can range all real numbers, which is also a contradiction.





          Now, if $f(x+y)$ is not $f(x)+f(y)$, then $f(x-y) neq f(x) - f(y)$, and by replacing $x$ with $y$, we get $f(y-x) neq f(y) - f(x)$, so $f(x-y)+f(y-x) neq 0$, which is a contradiction of the fact that $f$ is odd.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 4




            $begingroup$
            Could it be possible that $f(x)=-f(-x)$ for some $x$, and $f(x)=f(-x)$ for other $x$, which satisfies $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$ with $f$ being neither odd nor even?
            $endgroup$
            – GoodDeeds
            Nov 3 '18 at 6:37






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The second equation is not correct. If you plug in $-y$ for $y$ you get $f(x)f(x+y)+f(-y)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(-y)^2$ (although this seems just a typo given the next equation).
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 8:12










          • $begingroup$
            One can prove by induction that $f(qx) = qf(x)$ for $q$ rational. Not sure if with the info from math.stackexchange.com/questions/110125/… one has also $f(xy)=yf(x)$ from which for $x=1$ we get $f(y)=yf(1)$ from which the additivity results.
            $endgroup$
            – Lacramioara
            Nov 3 '18 at 13:32










          • $begingroup$
            The comments in the question have proved that $f(-x)^2 = f(x)^2$, so it is not a typo; I should have explained that more clearly. However, we do need to prove that f(x) is continuous.
            $endgroup$
            – ETS1331
            Nov 3 '18 at 15:10












          • $begingroup$
            It is a typo. I was referring to the $f(y)$ in the second term on the LHS of what was your second equation: $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2$. It should be $f(-y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 19:06





















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          The OP already showed $f(0)=0$ and $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$.
          Let $G=f^{-1}(0)$. Then we already know $0in G$ and $xin Gto -xin G$.Assume $a,bin G$. Then
          $$tag{$a+b,b $} 0+0=f(a+b)^2+0$$
          and so $a+bin G$. We conclude that $G$ is a subgroup of $Bbb R$.
          From
          $$tag{$x,x$}f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2,$$
          we see that $2xin Gto xin G$ and also conclude (as we already know $f(x)=0to f(2x)=0$)
          $$ f(2x)=2f(x).$$
          Next, from
          $$tag{$x,2x$} f(x)f(-x)+f(2x)f(3x)=f(x)^2+f(2x)^2$$
          we see
          $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$
          And from
          $$tag{$x,-2x $}f(x)f(3x)+f(-2x)f(-x)=f(x)^2+f(-2x)^2$$
          we see (as $f(-2x)=pm f(2x)$)
          $$ f(3x)pm2f(-x)=5f(x).$$
          Then $f(-x)mp 4f(-x)=-5f(x)$ together with $|f(-x)|=|f(x)|$ shows that (for $f(x)ne0$, but trivially also for $f(x)=0$) the lower sign must hold, and consequently,
          $$ f(-x)=-f(x).$$
          Now from $$tag{$y,-x$} f(y)f(x+y)+f(x)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
          and the original functional equation, we find that either the obvious solution $f(xpm y)=f(x)pm f(y)$ is the unique solution of these two linear equations in the unknowns $f(x+y)$, $ f(x-y)$; or the discriminant is zero, i.e., $f(x)=f(y)$.
          So all we still need to show additivity for, is the case that $f(x)=f(y)$. We already know from above that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ when $f(x)=f(y)=0$. Therefore we may assume that $f(2x)=2f(x)ne f(y)$ and so $f(2x+y)=f(2x)+f(y)=3f(x)ne f(-x)$ and ultimately $f(x+y)=f((2x+y)-x)=f(2x+y)+f(-x)=2f(x)$, as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            How get this one $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$ This can only be if $f(x)ne 0$?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Nov 4 '18 at 17:41










          • $begingroup$
            I'm still waiting for an answer?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 21 '18 at 11:47










          • $begingroup$
            @greedoid The equality clearly holds if $f(x)neq 0$. But it also holds if $f(x)=0$, because then $f(-x)=f(3x)=0$ (recall that $G=f^{-1}(0)$ is a subgroup of $mathbb R$. In particular, if $f(x)=0$ then $f(-x)+2f(3x)=0=5f(x)$.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Dec 24 '18 at 17:54










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, this explains everything.He could write all this down. But he wouldn't. Thank you @timon92
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 24 '18 at 20:15











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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          1












          $begingroup$

          This is only part of an answer, as I can't prove that $f$ is even or odd.



          First, we want to show that $f$ is either even or odd, given $f(x)^2 = f(-x)^2$.



          Say there are two points $x$ and $y$ such that $f(x) = f(-x)$ and $f(y) = -f(-y)$. Then, $f(x)f(x-y) + f(x+y) = f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and, by plugging in $-x,y$, we get $$f(-x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(-x)^2 + f(y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y^2)$$ so we have $$f(x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(x)f(x-y) + f(y)f(x+y)$$





          We now take cases on if $x+y$ and $y-x$ are odd or even.



          If they are both even, then we have $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$ or $f(x) = f(y)$ by factorization, which is constant. If they are both odd, Then $f(x) = -f(y)$ or $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, which still both are contradictions.



          Therefore, one has to be even and one has to be odd. I don't see any way to continue from here; so I skip to the part where they are either even or odd.





          Now, we show that $f(x)$ is odd.
          We know that $f(x)f(x−y)+f(y)f(x+y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and by plugging in $-y$ in for $y$, we get $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y)^2$, since $f(-y)^2 = f(y)^2$ and therefore $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)f(x+y) - f(-y)f(x-y)$$



          Now, we know that $f$ is either odd or even (or assume it for now). However, if $f$ is even, then we have $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)(f(x+y) - f(x-y))$$ So either $f(x) = f(y)$, contradiction, or $f(x+y) - f(x-y) = 0 implies f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, and because $x+y$ and $x-y$ can range all real numbers, which is also a contradiction.





          Now, if $f(x+y)$ is not $f(x)+f(y)$, then $f(x-y) neq f(x) - f(y)$, and by replacing $x$ with $y$, we get $f(y-x) neq f(y) - f(x)$, so $f(x-y)+f(y-x) neq 0$, which is a contradiction of the fact that $f$ is odd.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 4




            $begingroup$
            Could it be possible that $f(x)=-f(-x)$ for some $x$, and $f(x)=f(-x)$ for other $x$, which satisfies $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$ with $f$ being neither odd nor even?
            $endgroup$
            – GoodDeeds
            Nov 3 '18 at 6:37






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The second equation is not correct. If you plug in $-y$ for $y$ you get $f(x)f(x+y)+f(-y)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(-y)^2$ (although this seems just a typo given the next equation).
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 8:12










          • $begingroup$
            One can prove by induction that $f(qx) = qf(x)$ for $q$ rational. Not sure if with the info from math.stackexchange.com/questions/110125/… one has also $f(xy)=yf(x)$ from which for $x=1$ we get $f(y)=yf(1)$ from which the additivity results.
            $endgroup$
            – Lacramioara
            Nov 3 '18 at 13:32










          • $begingroup$
            The comments in the question have proved that $f(-x)^2 = f(x)^2$, so it is not a typo; I should have explained that more clearly. However, we do need to prove that f(x) is continuous.
            $endgroup$
            – ETS1331
            Nov 3 '18 at 15:10












          • $begingroup$
            It is a typo. I was referring to the $f(y)$ in the second term on the LHS of what was your second equation: $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2$. It should be $f(-y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 19:06


















          1












          $begingroup$

          This is only part of an answer, as I can't prove that $f$ is even or odd.



          First, we want to show that $f$ is either even or odd, given $f(x)^2 = f(-x)^2$.



          Say there are two points $x$ and $y$ such that $f(x) = f(-x)$ and $f(y) = -f(-y)$. Then, $f(x)f(x-y) + f(x+y) = f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and, by plugging in $-x,y$, we get $$f(-x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(-x)^2 + f(y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y^2)$$ so we have $$f(x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(x)f(x-y) + f(y)f(x+y)$$





          We now take cases on if $x+y$ and $y-x$ are odd or even.



          If they are both even, then we have $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$ or $f(x) = f(y)$ by factorization, which is constant. If they are both odd, Then $f(x) = -f(y)$ or $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, which still both are contradictions.



          Therefore, one has to be even and one has to be odd. I don't see any way to continue from here; so I skip to the part where they are either even or odd.





          Now, we show that $f(x)$ is odd.
          We know that $f(x)f(x−y)+f(y)f(x+y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and by plugging in $-y$ in for $y$, we get $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y)^2$, since $f(-y)^2 = f(y)^2$ and therefore $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)f(x+y) - f(-y)f(x-y)$$



          Now, we know that $f$ is either odd or even (or assume it for now). However, if $f$ is even, then we have $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)(f(x+y) - f(x-y))$$ So either $f(x) = f(y)$, contradiction, or $f(x+y) - f(x-y) = 0 implies f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, and because $x+y$ and $x-y$ can range all real numbers, which is also a contradiction.





          Now, if $f(x+y)$ is not $f(x)+f(y)$, then $f(x-y) neq f(x) - f(y)$, and by replacing $x$ with $y$, we get $f(y-x) neq f(y) - f(x)$, so $f(x-y)+f(y-x) neq 0$, which is a contradiction of the fact that $f$ is odd.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 4




            $begingroup$
            Could it be possible that $f(x)=-f(-x)$ for some $x$, and $f(x)=f(-x)$ for other $x$, which satisfies $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$ with $f$ being neither odd nor even?
            $endgroup$
            – GoodDeeds
            Nov 3 '18 at 6:37






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The second equation is not correct. If you plug in $-y$ for $y$ you get $f(x)f(x+y)+f(-y)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(-y)^2$ (although this seems just a typo given the next equation).
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 8:12










          • $begingroup$
            One can prove by induction that $f(qx) = qf(x)$ for $q$ rational. Not sure if with the info from math.stackexchange.com/questions/110125/… one has also $f(xy)=yf(x)$ from which for $x=1$ we get $f(y)=yf(1)$ from which the additivity results.
            $endgroup$
            – Lacramioara
            Nov 3 '18 at 13:32










          • $begingroup$
            The comments in the question have proved that $f(-x)^2 = f(x)^2$, so it is not a typo; I should have explained that more clearly. However, we do need to prove that f(x) is continuous.
            $endgroup$
            – ETS1331
            Nov 3 '18 at 15:10












          • $begingroup$
            It is a typo. I was referring to the $f(y)$ in the second term on the LHS of what was your second equation: $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2$. It should be $f(-y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 19:06
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          This is only part of an answer, as I can't prove that $f$ is even or odd.



          First, we want to show that $f$ is either even or odd, given $f(x)^2 = f(-x)^2$.



          Say there are two points $x$ and $y$ such that $f(x) = f(-x)$ and $f(y) = -f(-y)$. Then, $f(x)f(x-y) + f(x+y) = f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and, by plugging in $-x,y$, we get $$f(-x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(-x)^2 + f(y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y^2)$$ so we have $$f(x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(x)f(x-y) + f(y)f(x+y)$$





          We now take cases on if $x+y$ and $y-x$ are odd or even.



          If they are both even, then we have $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$ or $f(x) = f(y)$ by factorization, which is constant. If they are both odd, Then $f(x) = -f(y)$ or $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, which still both are contradictions.



          Therefore, one has to be even and one has to be odd. I don't see any way to continue from here; so I skip to the part where they are either even or odd.





          Now, we show that $f(x)$ is odd.
          We know that $f(x)f(x−y)+f(y)f(x+y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and by plugging in $-y$ in for $y$, we get $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y)^2$, since $f(-y)^2 = f(y)^2$ and therefore $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)f(x+y) - f(-y)f(x-y)$$



          Now, we know that $f$ is either odd or even (or assume it for now). However, if $f$ is even, then we have $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)(f(x+y) - f(x-y))$$ So either $f(x) = f(y)$, contradiction, or $f(x+y) - f(x-y) = 0 implies f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, and because $x+y$ and $x-y$ can range all real numbers, which is also a contradiction.





          Now, if $f(x+y)$ is not $f(x)+f(y)$, then $f(x-y) neq f(x) - f(y)$, and by replacing $x$ with $y$, we get $f(y-x) neq f(y) - f(x)$, so $f(x-y)+f(y-x) neq 0$, which is a contradiction of the fact that $f$ is odd.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          This is only part of an answer, as I can't prove that $f$ is even or odd.



          First, we want to show that $f$ is either even or odd, given $f(x)^2 = f(-x)^2$.



          Say there are two points $x$ and $y$ such that $f(x) = f(-x)$ and $f(y) = -f(-y)$. Then, $f(x)f(x-y) + f(x+y) = f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and, by plugging in $-x,y$, we get $$f(-x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(-x)^2 + f(y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y^2)$$ so we have $$f(x)f(-x-y) + f(y)f(y-x) = f(x)f(x-y) + f(y)f(x+y)$$





          We now take cases on if $x+y$ and $y-x$ are odd or even.



          If they are both even, then we have $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$ or $f(x) = f(y)$ by factorization, which is constant. If they are both odd, Then $f(x) = -f(y)$ or $f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, which still both are contradictions.



          Therefore, one has to be even and one has to be odd. I don't see any way to continue from here; so I skip to the part where they are either even or odd.





          Now, we show that $f(x)$ is odd.
          We know that $f(x)f(x−y)+f(y)f(x+y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$, and by plugging in $-y$ in for $y$, we get $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2 = f(x)^2 + f(y)^2$, since $f(-y)^2 = f(y)^2$ and therefore $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)f(x+y) - f(-y)f(x-y)$$



          Now, we know that $f$ is either odd or even (or assume it for now). However, if $f$ is even, then we have $$f(x)(f(x+y)-f(x-y)) = f(y)(f(x+y) - f(x-y))$$ So either $f(x) = f(y)$, contradiction, or $f(x+y) - f(x-y) = 0 implies f(x+y) = f(x-y)$, and because $x+y$ and $x-y$ can range all real numbers, which is also a contradiction.





          Now, if $f(x+y)$ is not $f(x)+f(y)$, then $f(x-y) neq f(x) - f(y)$, and by replacing $x$ with $y$, we get $f(y-x) neq f(y) - f(x)$, so $f(x-y)+f(y-x) neq 0$, which is a contradiction of the fact that $f$ is odd.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 3 '18 at 22:25

























          answered Nov 3 '18 at 3:43









          ETS1331ETS1331

          307214




          307214








          • 4




            $begingroup$
            Could it be possible that $f(x)=-f(-x)$ for some $x$, and $f(x)=f(-x)$ for other $x$, which satisfies $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$ with $f$ being neither odd nor even?
            $endgroup$
            – GoodDeeds
            Nov 3 '18 at 6:37






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The second equation is not correct. If you plug in $-y$ for $y$ you get $f(x)f(x+y)+f(-y)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(-y)^2$ (although this seems just a typo given the next equation).
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 8:12










          • $begingroup$
            One can prove by induction that $f(qx) = qf(x)$ for $q$ rational. Not sure if with the info from math.stackexchange.com/questions/110125/… one has also $f(xy)=yf(x)$ from which for $x=1$ we get $f(y)=yf(1)$ from which the additivity results.
            $endgroup$
            – Lacramioara
            Nov 3 '18 at 13:32










          • $begingroup$
            The comments in the question have proved that $f(-x)^2 = f(x)^2$, so it is not a typo; I should have explained that more clearly. However, we do need to prove that f(x) is continuous.
            $endgroup$
            – ETS1331
            Nov 3 '18 at 15:10












          • $begingroup$
            It is a typo. I was referring to the $f(y)$ in the second term on the LHS of what was your second equation: $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2$. It should be $f(-y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 19:06
















          • 4




            $begingroup$
            Could it be possible that $f(x)=-f(-x)$ for some $x$, and $f(x)=f(-x)$ for other $x$, which satisfies $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$ with $f$ being neither odd nor even?
            $endgroup$
            – GoodDeeds
            Nov 3 '18 at 6:37






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The second equation is not correct. If you plug in $-y$ for $y$ you get $f(x)f(x+y)+f(-y)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(-y)^2$ (although this seems just a typo given the next equation).
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 8:12










          • $begingroup$
            One can prove by induction that $f(qx) = qf(x)$ for $q$ rational. Not sure if with the info from math.stackexchange.com/questions/110125/… one has also $f(xy)=yf(x)$ from which for $x=1$ we get $f(y)=yf(1)$ from which the additivity results.
            $endgroup$
            – Lacramioara
            Nov 3 '18 at 13:32










          • $begingroup$
            The comments in the question have proved that $f(-x)^2 = f(x)^2$, so it is not a typo; I should have explained that more clearly. However, we do need to prove that f(x) is continuous.
            $endgroup$
            – ETS1331
            Nov 3 '18 at 15:10












          • $begingroup$
            It is a typo. I was referring to the $f(y)$ in the second term on the LHS of what was your second equation: $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2$. It should be $f(-y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – smcc
            Nov 3 '18 at 19:06










          4




          4




          $begingroup$
          Could it be possible that $f(x)=-f(-x)$ for some $x$, and $f(x)=f(-x)$ for other $x$, which satisfies $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$ with $f$ being neither odd nor even?
          $endgroup$
          – GoodDeeds
          Nov 3 '18 at 6:37




          $begingroup$
          Could it be possible that $f(x)=-f(-x)$ for some $x$, and $f(x)=f(-x)$ for other $x$, which satisfies $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$ with $f$ being neither odd nor even?
          $endgroup$
          – GoodDeeds
          Nov 3 '18 at 6:37




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          The second equation is not correct. If you plug in $-y$ for $y$ you get $f(x)f(x+y)+f(-y)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(-y)^2$ (although this seems just a typo given the next equation).
          $endgroup$
          – smcc
          Nov 3 '18 at 8:12




          $begingroup$
          The second equation is not correct. If you plug in $-y$ for $y$ you get $f(x)f(x+y)+f(-y)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(-y)^2$ (although this seems just a typo given the next equation).
          $endgroup$
          – smcc
          Nov 3 '18 at 8:12












          $begingroup$
          One can prove by induction that $f(qx) = qf(x)$ for $q$ rational. Not sure if with the info from math.stackexchange.com/questions/110125/… one has also $f(xy)=yf(x)$ from which for $x=1$ we get $f(y)=yf(1)$ from which the additivity results.
          $endgroup$
          – Lacramioara
          Nov 3 '18 at 13:32




          $begingroup$
          One can prove by induction that $f(qx) = qf(x)$ for $q$ rational. Not sure if with the info from math.stackexchange.com/questions/110125/… one has also $f(xy)=yf(x)$ from which for $x=1$ we get $f(y)=yf(1)$ from which the additivity results.
          $endgroup$
          – Lacramioara
          Nov 3 '18 at 13:32












          $begingroup$
          The comments in the question have proved that $f(-x)^2 = f(x)^2$, so it is not a typo; I should have explained that more clearly. However, we do need to prove that f(x) is continuous.
          $endgroup$
          – ETS1331
          Nov 3 '18 at 15:10






          $begingroup$
          The comments in the question have proved that $f(-x)^2 = f(x)^2$, so it is not a typo; I should have explained that more clearly. However, we do need to prove that f(x) is continuous.
          $endgroup$
          – ETS1331
          Nov 3 '18 at 15:10














          $begingroup$
          It is a typo. I was referring to the $f(y)$ in the second term on the LHS of what was your second equation: $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2$. It should be $f(-y)$.
          $endgroup$
          – smcc
          Nov 3 '18 at 19:06






          $begingroup$
          It is a typo. I was referring to the $f(y)$ in the second term on the LHS of what was your second equation: $f(x)f(x+y) + f(y)f(x-y) = f(x)^2 + f(-y)^2$. It should be $f(-y)$.
          $endgroup$
          – smcc
          Nov 3 '18 at 19:06













          0












          $begingroup$

          The OP already showed $f(0)=0$ and $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$.
          Let $G=f^{-1}(0)$. Then we already know $0in G$ and $xin Gto -xin G$.Assume $a,bin G$. Then
          $$tag{$a+b,b $} 0+0=f(a+b)^2+0$$
          and so $a+bin G$. We conclude that $G$ is a subgroup of $Bbb R$.
          From
          $$tag{$x,x$}f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2,$$
          we see that $2xin Gto xin G$ and also conclude (as we already know $f(x)=0to f(2x)=0$)
          $$ f(2x)=2f(x).$$
          Next, from
          $$tag{$x,2x$} f(x)f(-x)+f(2x)f(3x)=f(x)^2+f(2x)^2$$
          we see
          $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$
          And from
          $$tag{$x,-2x $}f(x)f(3x)+f(-2x)f(-x)=f(x)^2+f(-2x)^2$$
          we see (as $f(-2x)=pm f(2x)$)
          $$ f(3x)pm2f(-x)=5f(x).$$
          Then $f(-x)mp 4f(-x)=-5f(x)$ together with $|f(-x)|=|f(x)|$ shows that (for $f(x)ne0$, but trivially also for $f(x)=0$) the lower sign must hold, and consequently,
          $$ f(-x)=-f(x).$$
          Now from $$tag{$y,-x$} f(y)f(x+y)+f(x)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
          and the original functional equation, we find that either the obvious solution $f(xpm y)=f(x)pm f(y)$ is the unique solution of these two linear equations in the unknowns $f(x+y)$, $ f(x-y)$; or the discriminant is zero, i.e., $f(x)=f(y)$.
          So all we still need to show additivity for, is the case that $f(x)=f(y)$. We already know from above that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ when $f(x)=f(y)=0$. Therefore we may assume that $f(2x)=2f(x)ne f(y)$ and so $f(2x+y)=f(2x)+f(y)=3f(x)ne f(-x)$ and ultimately $f(x+y)=f((2x+y)-x)=f(2x+y)+f(-x)=2f(x)$, as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            How get this one $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$ This can only be if $f(x)ne 0$?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Nov 4 '18 at 17:41










          • $begingroup$
            I'm still waiting for an answer?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 21 '18 at 11:47










          • $begingroup$
            @greedoid The equality clearly holds if $f(x)neq 0$. But it also holds if $f(x)=0$, because then $f(-x)=f(3x)=0$ (recall that $G=f^{-1}(0)$ is a subgroup of $mathbb R$. In particular, if $f(x)=0$ then $f(-x)+2f(3x)=0=5f(x)$.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Dec 24 '18 at 17:54










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, this explains everything.He could write all this down. But he wouldn't. Thank you @timon92
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 24 '18 at 20:15
















          0












          $begingroup$

          The OP already showed $f(0)=0$ and $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$.
          Let $G=f^{-1}(0)$. Then we already know $0in G$ and $xin Gto -xin G$.Assume $a,bin G$. Then
          $$tag{$a+b,b $} 0+0=f(a+b)^2+0$$
          and so $a+bin G$. We conclude that $G$ is a subgroup of $Bbb R$.
          From
          $$tag{$x,x$}f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2,$$
          we see that $2xin Gto xin G$ and also conclude (as we already know $f(x)=0to f(2x)=0$)
          $$ f(2x)=2f(x).$$
          Next, from
          $$tag{$x,2x$} f(x)f(-x)+f(2x)f(3x)=f(x)^2+f(2x)^2$$
          we see
          $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$
          And from
          $$tag{$x,-2x $}f(x)f(3x)+f(-2x)f(-x)=f(x)^2+f(-2x)^2$$
          we see (as $f(-2x)=pm f(2x)$)
          $$ f(3x)pm2f(-x)=5f(x).$$
          Then $f(-x)mp 4f(-x)=-5f(x)$ together with $|f(-x)|=|f(x)|$ shows that (for $f(x)ne0$, but trivially also for $f(x)=0$) the lower sign must hold, and consequently,
          $$ f(-x)=-f(x).$$
          Now from $$tag{$y,-x$} f(y)f(x+y)+f(x)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
          and the original functional equation, we find that either the obvious solution $f(xpm y)=f(x)pm f(y)$ is the unique solution of these two linear equations in the unknowns $f(x+y)$, $ f(x-y)$; or the discriminant is zero, i.e., $f(x)=f(y)$.
          So all we still need to show additivity for, is the case that $f(x)=f(y)$. We already know from above that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ when $f(x)=f(y)=0$. Therefore we may assume that $f(2x)=2f(x)ne f(y)$ and so $f(2x+y)=f(2x)+f(y)=3f(x)ne f(-x)$ and ultimately $f(x+y)=f((2x+y)-x)=f(2x+y)+f(-x)=2f(x)$, as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            How get this one $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$ This can only be if $f(x)ne 0$?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Nov 4 '18 at 17:41










          • $begingroup$
            I'm still waiting for an answer?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 21 '18 at 11:47










          • $begingroup$
            @greedoid The equality clearly holds if $f(x)neq 0$. But it also holds if $f(x)=0$, because then $f(-x)=f(3x)=0$ (recall that $G=f^{-1}(0)$ is a subgroup of $mathbb R$. In particular, if $f(x)=0$ then $f(-x)+2f(3x)=0=5f(x)$.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Dec 24 '18 at 17:54










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, this explains everything.He could write all this down. But he wouldn't. Thank you @timon92
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 24 '18 at 20:15














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          The OP already showed $f(0)=0$ and $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$.
          Let $G=f^{-1}(0)$. Then we already know $0in G$ and $xin Gto -xin G$.Assume $a,bin G$. Then
          $$tag{$a+b,b $} 0+0=f(a+b)^2+0$$
          and so $a+bin G$. We conclude that $G$ is a subgroup of $Bbb R$.
          From
          $$tag{$x,x$}f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2,$$
          we see that $2xin Gto xin G$ and also conclude (as we already know $f(x)=0to f(2x)=0$)
          $$ f(2x)=2f(x).$$
          Next, from
          $$tag{$x,2x$} f(x)f(-x)+f(2x)f(3x)=f(x)^2+f(2x)^2$$
          we see
          $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$
          And from
          $$tag{$x,-2x $}f(x)f(3x)+f(-2x)f(-x)=f(x)^2+f(-2x)^2$$
          we see (as $f(-2x)=pm f(2x)$)
          $$ f(3x)pm2f(-x)=5f(x).$$
          Then $f(-x)mp 4f(-x)=-5f(x)$ together with $|f(-x)|=|f(x)|$ shows that (for $f(x)ne0$, but trivially also for $f(x)=0$) the lower sign must hold, and consequently,
          $$ f(-x)=-f(x).$$
          Now from $$tag{$y,-x$} f(y)f(x+y)+f(x)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
          and the original functional equation, we find that either the obvious solution $f(xpm y)=f(x)pm f(y)$ is the unique solution of these two linear equations in the unknowns $f(x+y)$, $ f(x-y)$; or the discriminant is zero, i.e., $f(x)=f(y)$.
          So all we still need to show additivity for, is the case that $f(x)=f(y)$. We already know from above that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ when $f(x)=f(y)=0$. Therefore we may assume that $f(2x)=2f(x)ne f(y)$ and so $f(2x+y)=f(2x)+f(y)=3f(x)ne f(-x)$ and ultimately $f(x+y)=f((2x+y)-x)=f(2x+y)+f(-x)=2f(x)$, as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The OP already showed $f(0)=0$ and $f(x)^2=f(-x)^2$.
          Let $G=f^{-1}(0)$. Then we already know $0in G$ and $xin Gto -xin G$.Assume $a,bin G$. Then
          $$tag{$a+b,b $} 0+0=f(a+b)^2+0$$
          and so $a+bin G$. We conclude that $G$ is a subgroup of $Bbb R$.
          From
          $$tag{$x,x$}f(x)f(2x)=2f(x)^2,$$
          we see that $2xin Gto xin G$ and also conclude (as we already know $f(x)=0to f(2x)=0$)
          $$ f(2x)=2f(x).$$
          Next, from
          $$tag{$x,2x$} f(x)f(-x)+f(2x)f(3x)=f(x)^2+f(2x)^2$$
          we see
          $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$
          And from
          $$tag{$x,-2x $}f(x)f(3x)+f(-2x)f(-x)=f(x)^2+f(-2x)^2$$
          we see (as $f(-2x)=pm f(2x)$)
          $$ f(3x)pm2f(-x)=5f(x).$$
          Then $f(-x)mp 4f(-x)=-5f(x)$ together with $|f(-x)|=|f(x)|$ shows that (for $f(x)ne0$, but trivially also for $f(x)=0$) the lower sign must hold, and consequently,
          $$ f(-x)=-f(x).$$
          Now from $$tag{$y,-x$} f(y)f(x+y)+f(x)f(x-y)=f(x)^2+f(y)^2$$
          and the original functional equation, we find that either the obvious solution $f(xpm y)=f(x)pm f(y)$ is the unique solution of these two linear equations in the unknowns $f(x+y)$, $ f(x-y)$; or the discriminant is zero, i.e., $f(x)=f(y)$.
          So all we still need to show additivity for, is the case that $f(x)=f(y)$. We already know from above that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ when $f(x)=f(y)=0$. Therefore we may assume that $f(2x)=2f(x)ne f(y)$ and so $f(2x+y)=f(2x)+f(y)=3f(x)ne f(-x)$ and ultimately $f(x+y)=f((2x+y)-x)=f(2x+y)+f(-x)=2f(x)$, as desired.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 4 '18 at 17:21









          Hagen von EitzenHagen von Eitzen

          279k23271502




          279k23271502












          • $begingroup$
            How get this one $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$ This can only be if $f(x)ne 0$?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Nov 4 '18 at 17:41










          • $begingroup$
            I'm still waiting for an answer?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 21 '18 at 11:47










          • $begingroup$
            @greedoid The equality clearly holds if $f(x)neq 0$. But it also holds if $f(x)=0$, because then $f(-x)=f(3x)=0$ (recall that $G=f^{-1}(0)$ is a subgroup of $mathbb R$. In particular, if $f(x)=0$ then $f(-x)+2f(3x)=0=5f(x)$.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Dec 24 '18 at 17:54










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, this explains everything.He could write all this down. But he wouldn't. Thank you @timon92
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 24 '18 at 20:15


















          • $begingroup$
            How get this one $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$ This can only be if $f(x)ne 0$?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Nov 4 '18 at 17:41










          • $begingroup$
            I'm still waiting for an answer?
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 21 '18 at 11:47










          • $begingroup$
            @greedoid The equality clearly holds if $f(x)neq 0$. But it also holds if $f(x)=0$, because then $f(-x)=f(3x)=0$ (recall that $G=f^{-1}(0)$ is a subgroup of $mathbb R$. In particular, if $f(x)=0$ then $f(-x)+2f(3x)=0=5f(x)$.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Dec 24 '18 at 17:54










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, this explains everything.He could write all this down. But he wouldn't. Thank you @timon92
            $endgroup$
            – greedoid
            Dec 24 '18 at 20:15
















          $begingroup$
          How get this one $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$ This can only be if $f(x)ne 0$?
          $endgroup$
          – greedoid
          Nov 4 '18 at 17:41




          $begingroup$
          How get this one $$ f(-x)+2f(3x)=5f(x).$$ This can only be if $f(x)ne 0$?
          $endgroup$
          – greedoid
          Nov 4 '18 at 17:41












          $begingroup$
          I'm still waiting for an answer?
          $endgroup$
          – greedoid
          Dec 21 '18 at 11:47




          $begingroup$
          I'm still waiting for an answer?
          $endgroup$
          – greedoid
          Dec 21 '18 at 11:47












          $begingroup$
          @greedoid The equality clearly holds if $f(x)neq 0$. But it also holds if $f(x)=0$, because then $f(-x)=f(3x)=0$ (recall that $G=f^{-1}(0)$ is a subgroup of $mathbb R$. In particular, if $f(x)=0$ then $f(-x)+2f(3x)=0=5f(x)$.
          $endgroup$
          – timon92
          Dec 24 '18 at 17:54




          $begingroup$
          @greedoid The equality clearly holds if $f(x)neq 0$. But it also holds if $f(x)=0$, because then $f(-x)=f(3x)=0$ (recall that $G=f^{-1}(0)$ is a subgroup of $mathbb R$. In particular, if $f(x)=0$ then $f(-x)+2f(3x)=0=5f(x)$.
          $endgroup$
          – timon92
          Dec 24 '18 at 17:54












          $begingroup$
          Yes, this explains everything.He could write all this down. But he wouldn't. Thank you @timon92
          $endgroup$
          – greedoid
          Dec 24 '18 at 20:15




          $begingroup$
          Yes, this explains everything.He could write all this down. But he wouldn't. Thank you @timon92
          $endgroup$
          – greedoid
          Dec 24 '18 at 20:15


















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