Homology of quotient of two copies of $mathbb S^2$.












6












$begingroup$


I have been trying to solve the following exercise. My knowledge of homology reduces to Mayer-Vietorius and relative homology, so I would like to know if the problem can be solved using these tools.



I have been thinking about this problem as of lately.



First of all to compute the homology groups of $X$, I used the Mayer-Vietorius long exact sequence. For that I considered the following sets $X_1 simeq S^2, X_2 simeq S^2$ enlarged versions of $A$ and $B$ so that their intersection is a set that can be deformated into the equator, that is $X_1 cap X_2 simeq S^1$. Computing the long exact sequence, the interesting part is the following one



$$cdotsrightarrow underset{0} {underbrace{H_{3}big( X)}} rightarrow underset{0} {underbrace{H_{2}big( mathbb S^1)}} {rightarrow } underset{ mathbb Z oplus mathbb Z} {underbrace{H_{2}big( mathbb S^2) oplus {H_{2}big( mathbb S^2)}}} rightarrow H_2big(Xbig) rightarrow underset{mathbb Z} {underbrace{H_{1}big( mathbb S^1)}} {rightarrow} 0 cdots
$$

As $mathbb Z$ is free this means that it splits so that $H_2(X) = H_1(mathbb S^1) oplus H_2(mathbb S^2) oplus H_2 (mathbb S^2)$. So the homology groups of $X$ are the following.



$$H_n(X) = left{ begin{array}{cl} mathbb{Z} & text{if} k=0 \
mathbb{Z^3} & text{if} k=2 \
0 & text{otherwise} end{array}right.$$



For the second part of the exercise I'm having a little bit more trouble. I tried using the relative homology exact sequence but it's not very inspiring. I couldn't quite understand what the inclusion $i_{*}:H_2(A) to H_2(X)$ does. So I tried to use that the pair $(X,A)$ is such that $H_n(X,A) simeq H_n(X/A)$ (I have to check that it is a strong deformation retract). This seems like a much better idea but I could not grasp what the space $X/A$ is. I'm thinking that it is $mathbb S^2 vee mathbb S^2 $ as all the sphere $A$ is identified to the equator and then the equator is identified into a point. In that case it's the same as $mathbb S^2$ with the equator identified which seems to be $mathbb S^2 vee mathbb S^2 $.
Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    6












    $begingroup$


    I have been trying to solve the following exercise. My knowledge of homology reduces to Mayer-Vietorius and relative homology, so I would like to know if the problem can be solved using these tools.



    I have been thinking about this problem as of lately.



    First of all to compute the homology groups of $X$, I used the Mayer-Vietorius long exact sequence. For that I considered the following sets $X_1 simeq S^2, X_2 simeq S^2$ enlarged versions of $A$ and $B$ so that their intersection is a set that can be deformated into the equator, that is $X_1 cap X_2 simeq S^1$. Computing the long exact sequence, the interesting part is the following one



    $$cdotsrightarrow underset{0} {underbrace{H_{3}big( X)}} rightarrow underset{0} {underbrace{H_{2}big( mathbb S^1)}} {rightarrow } underset{ mathbb Z oplus mathbb Z} {underbrace{H_{2}big( mathbb S^2) oplus {H_{2}big( mathbb S^2)}}} rightarrow H_2big(Xbig) rightarrow underset{mathbb Z} {underbrace{H_{1}big( mathbb S^1)}} {rightarrow} 0 cdots
    $$

    As $mathbb Z$ is free this means that it splits so that $H_2(X) = H_1(mathbb S^1) oplus H_2(mathbb S^2) oplus H_2 (mathbb S^2)$. So the homology groups of $X$ are the following.



    $$H_n(X) = left{ begin{array}{cl} mathbb{Z} & text{if} k=0 \
    mathbb{Z^3} & text{if} k=2 \
    0 & text{otherwise} end{array}right.$$



    For the second part of the exercise I'm having a little bit more trouble. I tried using the relative homology exact sequence but it's not very inspiring. I couldn't quite understand what the inclusion $i_{*}:H_2(A) to H_2(X)$ does. So I tried to use that the pair $(X,A)$ is such that $H_n(X,A) simeq H_n(X/A)$ (I have to check that it is a strong deformation retract). This seems like a much better idea but I could not grasp what the space $X/A$ is. I'm thinking that it is $mathbb S^2 vee mathbb S^2 $ as all the sphere $A$ is identified to the equator and then the equator is identified into a point. In that case it's the same as $mathbb S^2$ with the equator identified which seems to be $mathbb S^2 vee mathbb S^2 $.
    Thanks in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      6












      6








      6





      $begingroup$


      I have been trying to solve the following exercise. My knowledge of homology reduces to Mayer-Vietorius and relative homology, so I would like to know if the problem can be solved using these tools.



      I have been thinking about this problem as of lately.



      First of all to compute the homology groups of $X$, I used the Mayer-Vietorius long exact sequence. For that I considered the following sets $X_1 simeq S^2, X_2 simeq S^2$ enlarged versions of $A$ and $B$ so that their intersection is a set that can be deformated into the equator, that is $X_1 cap X_2 simeq S^1$. Computing the long exact sequence, the interesting part is the following one



      $$cdotsrightarrow underset{0} {underbrace{H_{3}big( X)}} rightarrow underset{0} {underbrace{H_{2}big( mathbb S^1)}} {rightarrow } underset{ mathbb Z oplus mathbb Z} {underbrace{H_{2}big( mathbb S^2) oplus {H_{2}big( mathbb S^2)}}} rightarrow H_2big(Xbig) rightarrow underset{mathbb Z} {underbrace{H_{1}big( mathbb S^1)}} {rightarrow} 0 cdots
      $$

      As $mathbb Z$ is free this means that it splits so that $H_2(X) = H_1(mathbb S^1) oplus H_2(mathbb S^2) oplus H_2 (mathbb S^2)$. So the homology groups of $X$ are the following.



      $$H_n(X) = left{ begin{array}{cl} mathbb{Z} & text{if} k=0 \
      mathbb{Z^3} & text{if} k=2 \
      0 & text{otherwise} end{array}right.$$



      For the second part of the exercise I'm having a little bit more trouble. I tried using the relative homology exact sequence but it's not very inspiring. I couldn't quite understand what the inclusion $i_{*}:H_2(A) to H_2(X)$ does. So I tried to use that the pair $(X,A)$ is such that $H_n(X,A) simeq H_n(X/A)$ (I have to check that it is a strong deformation retract). This seems like a much better idea but I could not grasp what the space $X/A$ is. I'm thinking that it is $mathbb S^2 vee mathbb S^2 $ as all the sphere $A$ is identified to the equator and then the equator is identified into a point. In that case it's the same as $mathbb S^2$ with the equator identified which seems to be $mathbb S^2 vee mathbb S^2 $.
      Thanks in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I have been trying to solve the following exercise. My knowledge of homology reduces to Mayer-Vietorius and relative homology, so I would like to know if the problem can be solved using these tools.



      I have been thinking about this problem as of lately.



      First of all to compute the homology groups of $X$, I used the Mayer-Vietorius long exact sequence. For that I considered the following sets $X_1 simeq S^2, X_2 simeq S^2$ enlarged versions of $A$ and $B$ so that their intersection is a set that can be deformated into the equator, that is $X_1 cap X_2 simeq S^1$. Computing the long exact sequence, the interesting part is the following one



      $$cdotsrightarrow underset{0} {underbrace{H_{3}big( X)}} rightarrow underset{0} {underbrace{H_{2}big( mathbb S^1)}} {rightarrow } underset{ mathbb Z oplus mathbb Z} {underbrace{H_{2}big( mathbb S^2) oplus {H_{2}big( mathbb S^2)}}} rightarrow H_2big(Xbig) rightarrow underset{mathbb Z} {underbrace{H_{1}big( mathbb S^1)}} {rightarrow} 0 cdots
      $$

      As $mathbb Z$ is free this means that it splits so that $H_2(X) = H_1(mathbb S^1) oplus H_2(mathbb S^2) oplus H_2 (mathbb S^2)$. So the homology groups of $X$ are the following.



      $$H_n(X) = left{ begin{array}{cl} mathbb{Z} & text{if} k=0 \
      mathbb{Z^3} & text{if} k=2 \
      0 & text{otherwise} end{array}right.$$



      For the second part of the exercise I'm having a little bit more trouble. I tried using the relative homology exact sequence but it's not very inspiring. I couldn't quite understand what the inclusion $i_{*}:H_2(A) to H_2(X)$ does. So I tried to use that the pair $(X,A)$ is such that $H_n(X,A) simeq H_n(X/A)$ (I have to check that it is a strong deformation retract). This seems like a much better idea but I could not grasp what the space $X/A$ is. I'm thinking that it is $mathbb S^2 vee mathbb S^2 $ as all the sphere $A$ is identified to the equator and then the equator is identified into a point. In that case it's the same as $mathbb S^2$ with the equator identified which seems to be $mathbb S^2 vee mathbb S^2 $.
      Thanks in advance!







      algebraic-topology homology-cohomology






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      edited Dec 17 '18 at 4:28







      Leo Lerena

















      asked Dec 17 '18 at 4:04









      Leo LerenaLeo Lerena

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          $begingroup$

          Your Mayer-Vietoris computation for $H_n(X)$ is correct. Alternatively, one can deduce this using the following chain of homotopy equivalences:



          enter image description here



          The first space is your space $X$: two spheres glued along their equators, which we are drawing with one sitting inside the other. The second space is a sphere glued to a cylinder along one of its equators. The third one is a cylinder with two middle caps and the last one is a wedge sum of three spheres. It is clear that the last space has the homology groups you described.



          For the second half, let us write down the relevant bits of the long exact sequence. One of them is



          $0to H_1(X,A)to H_0(A)to H_0(X)to 0,$



          since you know that $H_1(X)=0$ and $H_0(X,A)=0$. Now $H_0(A)simeq H_0(X) simeq Bbb{Z}$, and the map between them is surjective and thus an isomorphism, so $H_1(X,A)=0$.



          The other bit is



          $0 to H_3(X,A)to H_2(A)to H_2(X)to H_2(X,A)to 0$



          since you know $H_3(X)simeq H_1(A)=0$, and you also know that $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ and $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$. One may describe the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ explicitly, since it is the one induced by the inclusion. The map $sigma$ which radially expands a standard $2$-simplex to a $2$-sphere is a generator for $H_2(A)$. Similarly, if we suppose $A$ sits inside $X$ as in the drawing above, we may pick generators $x_1,x_2,x_3$ of $H_2(X)$ as in the following picture:



          enter image description here



          In this way, identifying $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$ by the map $x_i mapsto e_i$ and $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ by $sigmamapsto 1$, we see that the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ induces the map $Bbb{Z}to Bbb{Z}^3$ given by $1mapsto (0,1,0)$. Since this map is injective, $H_3(X,A)=0$, and moreover $H_1(X,A)simeq Bbb{Z}^3/langle (0,1,0)ranglesimeq Bbb{Z}^2$.



          Your argument using that $H_n(X,A)simeq tilde{H}_n(X/A)$ (notice it is the reduced homology groups) is correct as well, and you may check that the homology groups computed above agree with this. To see that $X/A$ is homeomorphic to a wedge of spheres, note that the map $Xto S^2vee S^2$ taking the upper hemisphere of $B$ to all of one the spheres minus a single point, the lower hemisphere to the other sphere in a similar fashion and all of $A$ to the gluing point induces a continuous bijection $X/Ato S^2vee S^2$. Since $X/A$ is compact and $S^2vee S^2$ is Hausdorff, this is a homeomorphism.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Note that if we had picked $A$ to be the outermost sphere, the induced map would have been $1 mapsto (1,1,1)$, and the rest of the computation would have followed in the same way.
            $endgroup$
            – F M
            Dec 17 '18 at 15:44










          • $begingroup$
            Excellent as usual.
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 17 '18 at 19:36










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks a lot for taking your time to write this answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 18 '18 at 1:35











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          2












          $begingroup$

          Your Mayer-Vietoris computation for $H_n(X)$ is correct. Alternatively, one can deduce this using the following chain of homotopy equivalences:



          enter image description here



          The first space is your space $X$: two spheres glued along their equators, which we are drawing with one sitting inside the other. The second space is a sphere glued to a cylinder along one of its equators. The third one is a cylinder with two middle caps and the last one is a wedge sum of three spheres. It is clear that the last space has the homology groups you described.



          For the second half, let us write down the relevant bits of the long exact sequence. One of them is



          $0to H_1(X,A)to H_0(A)to H_0(X)to 0,$



          since you know that $H_1(X)=0$ and $H_0(X,A)=0$. Now $H_0(A)simeq H_0(X) simeq Bbb{Z}$, and the map between them is surjective and thus an isomorphism, so $H_1(X,A)=0$.



          The other bit is



          $0 to H_3(X,A)to H_2(A)to H_2(X)to H_2(X,A)to 0$



          since you know $H_3(X)simeq H_1(A)=0$, and you also know that $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ and $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$. One may describe the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ explicitly, since it is the one induced by the inclusion. The map $sigma$ which radially expands a standard $2$-simplex to a $2$-sphere is a generator for $H_2(A)$. Similarly, if we suppose $A$ sits inside $X$ as in the drawing above, we may pick generators $x_1,x_2,x_3$ of $H_2(X)$ as in the following picture:



          enter image description here



          In this way, identifying $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$ by the map $x_i mapsto e_i$ and $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ by $sigmamapsto 1$, we see that the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ induces the map $Bbb{Z}to Bbb{Z}^3$ given by $1mapsto (0,1,0)$. Since this map is injective, $H_3(X,A)=0$, and moreover $H_1(X,A)simeq Bbb{Z}^3/langle (0,1,0)ranglesimeq Bbb{Z}^2$.



          Your argument using that $H_n(X,A)simeq tilde{H}_n(X/A)$ (notice it is the reduced homology groups) is correct as well, and you may check that the homology groups computed above agree with this. To see that $X/A$ is homeomorphic to a wedge of spheres, note that the map $Xto S^2vee S^2$ taking the upper hemisphere of $B$ to all of one the spheres minus a single point, the lower hemisphere to the other sphere in a similar fashion and all of $A$ to the gluing point induces a continuous bijection $X/Ato S^2vee S^2$. Since $X/A$ is compact and $S^2vee S^2$ is Hausdorff, this is a homeomorphism.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Note that if we had picked $A$ to be the outermost sphere, the induced map would have been $1 mapsto (1,1,1)$, and the rest of the computation would have followed in the same way.
            $endgroup$
            – F M
            Dec 17 '18 at 15:44










          • $begingroup$
            Excellent as usual.
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 17 '18 at 19:36










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks a lot for taking your time to write this answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 18 '18 at 1:35
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Your Mayer-Vietoris computation for $H_n(X)$ is correct. Alternatively, one can deduce this using the following chain of homotopy equivalences:



          enter image description here



          The first space is your space $X$: two spheres glued along their equators, which we are drawing with one sitting inside the other. The second space is a sphere glued to a cylinder along one of its equators. The third one is a cylinder with two middle caps and the last one is a wedge sum of three spheres. It is clear that the last space has the homology groups you described.



          For the second half, let us write down the relevant bits of the long exact sequence. One of them is



          $0to H_1(X,A)to H_0(A)to H_0(X)to 0,$



          since you know that $H_1(X)=0$ and $H_0(X,A)=0$. Now $H_0(A)simeq H_0(X) simeq Bbb{Z}$, and the map between them is surjective and thus an isomorphism, so $H_1(X,A)=0$.



          The other bit is



          $0 to H_3(X,A)to H_2(A)to H_2(X)to H_2(X,A)to 0$



          since you know $H_3(X)simeq H_1(A)=0$, and you also know that $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ and $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$. One may describe the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ explicitly, since it is the one induced by the inclusion. The map $sigma$ which radially expands a standard $2$-simplex to a $2$-sphere is a generator for $H_2(A)$. Similarly, if we suppose $A$ sits inside $X$ as in the drawing above, we may pick generators $x_1,x_2,x_3$ of $H_2(X)$ as in the following picture:



          enter image description here



          In this way, identifying $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$ by the map $x_i mapsto e_i$ and $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ by $sigmamapsto 1$, we see that the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ induces the map $Bbb{Z}to Bbb{Z}^3$ given by $1mapsto (0,1,0)$. Since this map is injective, $H_3(X,A)=0$, and moreover $H_1(X,A)simeq Bbb{Z}^3/langle (0,1,0)ranglesimeq Bbb{Z}^2$.



          Your argument using that $H_n(X,A)simeq tilde{H}_n(X/A)$ (notice it is the reduced homology groups) is correct as well, and you may check that the homology groups computed above agree with this. To see that $X/A$ is homeomorphic to a wedge of spheres, note that the map $Xto S^2vee S^2$ taking the upper hemisphere of $B$ to all of one the spheres minus a single point, the lower hemisphere to the other sphere in a similar fashion and all of $A$ to the gluing point induces a continuous bijection $X/Ato S^2vee S^2$. Since $X/A$ is compact and $S^2vee S^2$ is Hausdorff, this is a homeomorphism.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Note that if we had picked $A$ to be the outermost sphere, the induced map would have been $1 mapsto (1,1,1)$, and the rest of the computation would have followed in the same way.
            $endgroup$
            – F M
            Dec 17 '18 at 15:44










          • $begingroup$
            Excellent as usual.
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 17 '18 at 19:36










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks a lot for taking your time to write this answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 18 '18 at 1:35














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Your Mayer-Vietoris computation for $H_n(X)$ is correct. Alternatively, one can deduce this using the following chain of homotopy equivalences:



          enter image description here



          The first space is your space $X$: two spheres glued along their equators, which we are drawing with one sitting inside the other. The second space is a sphere glued to a cylinder along one of its equators. The third one is a cylinder with two middle caps and the last one is a wedge sum of three spheres. It is clear that the last space has the homology groups you described.



          For the second half, let us write down the relevant bits of the long exact sequence. One of them is



          $0to H_1(X,A)to H_0(A)to H_0(X)to 0,$



          since you know that $H_1(X)=0$ and $H_0(X,A)=0$. Now $H_0(A)simeq H_0(X) simeq Bbb{Z}$, and the map between them is surjective and thus an isomorphism, so $H_1(X,A)=0$.



          The other bit is



          $0 to H_3(X,A)to H_2(A)to H_2(X)to H_2(X,A)to 0$



          since you know $H_3(X)simeq H_1(A)=0$, and you also know that $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ and $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$. One may describe the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ explicitly, since it is the one induced by the inclusion. The map $sigma$ which radially expands a standard $2$-simplex to a $2$-sphere is a generator for $H_2(A)$. Similarly, if we suppose $A$ sits inside $X$ as in the drawing above, we may pick generators $x_1,x_2,x_3$ of $H_2(X)$ as in the following picture:



          enter image description here



          In this way, identifying $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$ by the map $x_i mapsto e_i$ and $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ by $sigmamapsto 1$, we see that the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ induces the map $Bbb{Z}to Bbb{Z}^3$ given by $1mapsto (0,1,0)$. Since this map is injective, $H_3(X,A)=0$, and moreover $H_1(X,A)simeq Bbb{Z}^3/langle (0,1,0)ranglesimeq Bbb{Z}^2$.



          Your argument using that $H_n(X,A)simeq tilde{H}_n(X/A)$ (notice it is the reduced homology groups) is correct as well, and you may check that the homology groups computed above agree with this. To see that $X/A$ is homeomorphic to a wedge of spheres, note that the map $Xto S^2vee S^2$ taking the upper hemisphere of $B$ to all of one the spheres minus a single point, the lower hemisphere to the other sphere in a similar fashion and all of $A$ to the gluing point induces a continuous bijection $X/Ato S^2vee S^2$. Since $X/A$ is compact and $S^2vee S^2$ is Hausdorff, this is a homeomorphism.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Your Mayer-Vietoris computation for $H_n(X)$ is correct. Alternatively, one can deduce this using the following chain of homotopy equivalences:



          enter image description here



          The first space is your space $X$: two spheres glued along their equators, which we are drawing with one sitting inside the other. The second space is a sphere glued to a cylinder along one of its equators. The third one is a cylinder with two middle caps and the last one is a wedge sum of three spheres. It is clear that the last space has the homology groups you described.



          For the second half, let us write down the relevant bits of the long exact sequence. One of them is



          $0to H_1(X,A)to H_0(A)to H_0(X)to 0,$



          since you know that $H_1(X)=0$ and $H_0(X,A)=0$. Now $H_0(A)simeq H_0(X) simeq Bbb{Z}$, and the map between them is surjective and thus an isomorphism, so $H_1(X,A)=0$.



          The other bit is



          $0 to H_3(X,A)to H_2(A)to H_2(X)to H_2(X,A)to 0$



          since you know $H_3(X)simeq H_1(A)=0$, and you also know that $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ and $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$. One may describe the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ explicitly, since it is the one induced by the inclusion. The map $sigma$ which radially expands a standard $2$-simplex to a $2$-sphere is a generator for $H_2(A)$. Similarly, if we suppose $A$ sits inside $X$ as in the drawing above, we may pick generators $x_1,x_2,x_3$ of $H_2(X)$ as in the following picture:



          enter image description here



          In this way, identifying $H_2(X)simeq Bbb{Z}^3$ by the map $x_i mapsto e_i$ and $H_2(A)simeq Bbb{Z}$ by $sigmamapsto 1$, we see that the map $H_2(A)to H_2(X)$ induces the map $Bbb{Z}to Bbb{Z}^3$ given by $1mapsto (0,1,0)$. Since this map is injective, $H_3(X,A)=0$, and moreover $H_1(X,A)simeq Bbb{Z}^3/langle (0,1,0)ranglesimeq Bbb{Z}^2$.



          Your argument using that $H_n(X,A)simeq tilde{H}_n(X/A)$ (notice it is the reduced homology groups) is correct as well, and you may check that the homology groups computed above agree with this. To see that $X/A$ is homeomorphic to a wedge of spheres, note that the map $Xto S^2vee S^2$ taking the upper hemisphere of $B$ to all of one the spheres minus a single point, the lower hemisphere to the other sphere in a similar fashion and all of $A$ to the gluing point induces a continuous bijection $X/Ato S^2vee S^2$. Since $X/A$ is compact and $S^2vee S^2$ is Hausdorff, this is a homeomorphism.







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          answered Dec 17 '18 at 15:43









          F MF M

          3,06152341




          3,06152341








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Note that if we had picked $A$ to be the outermost sphere, the induced map would have been $1 mapsto (1,1,1)$, and the rest of the computation would have followed in the same way.
            $endgroup$
            – F M
            Dec 17 '18 at 15:44










          • $begingroup$
            Excellent as usual.
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 17 '18 at 19:36










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks a lot for taking your time to write this answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 18 '18 at 1:35














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Note that if we had picked $A$ to be the outermost sphere, the induced map would have been $1 mapsto (1,1,1)$, and the rest of the computation would have followed in the same way.
            $endgroup$
            – F M
            Dec 17 '18 at 15:44










          • $begingroup$
            Excellent as usual.
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 17 '18 at 19:36










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks a lot for taking your time to write this answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Leo Lerena
            Dec 18 '18 at 1:35








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Note that if we had picked $A$ to be the outermost sphere, the induced map would have been $1 mapsto (1,1,1)$, and the rest of the computation would have followed in the same way.
          $endgroup$
          – F M
          Dec 17 '18 at 15:44




          $begingroup$
          Note that if we had picked $A$ to be the outermost sphere, the induced map would have been $1 mapsto (1,1,1)$, and the rest of the computation would have followed in the same way.
          $endgroup$
          – F M
          Dec 17 '18 at 15:44












          $begingroup$
          Excellent as usual.
          $endgroup$
          – Leo Lerena
          Dec 17 '18 at 19:36




          $begingroup$
          Excellent as usual.
          $endgroup$
          – Leo Lerena
          Dec 17 '18 at 19:36












          $begingroup$
          Thanks a lot for taking your time to write this answer!
          $endgroup$
          – Leo Lerena
          Dec 18 '18 at 1:35




          $begingroup$
          Thanks a lot for taking your time to write this answer!
          $endgroup$
          – Leo Lerena
          Dec 18 '18 at 1:35


















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