Prove that the set used in archimedean property is closed
$begingroup$
Let $x$ be a positive real number. Show that the set
${nx:ninBbb N}$ is closed in $Bbb R$.
What I tried to do is that consider the function $f (x)=nx$ which is continuous in $Bbb R$ and tried to show that $g (x)=f (x)-nx$ greater than $0$ or less than $0$ is an open set.
Is my approach right ?
Please help!
real-analysis
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $x$ be a positive real number. Show that the set
${nx:ninBbb N}$ is closed in $Bbb R$.
What I tried to do is that consider the function $f (x)=nx$ which is continuous in $Bbb R$ and tried to show that $g (x)=f (x)-nx$ greater than $0$ or less than $0$ is an open set.
Is my approach right ?
Please help!
real-analysis
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I dk what you are thinking. If $f(x)=x$ then $0=nx-nx=f(x)-nx=g(x).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $x$ be a positive real number. Show that the set
${nx:ninBbb N}$ is closed in $Bbb R$.
What I tried to do is that consider the function $f (x)=nx$ which is continuous in $Bbb R$ and tried to show that $g (x)=f (x)-nx$ greater than $0$ or less than $0$ is an open set.
Is my approach right ?
Please help!
real-analysis
$endgroup$
Let $x$ be a positive real number. Show that the set
${nx:ninBbb N}$ is closed in $Bbb R$.
What I tried to do is that consider the function $f (x)=nx$ which is continuous in $Bbb R$ and tried to show that $g (x)=f (x)-nx$ greater than $0$ or less than $0$ is an open set.
Is my approach right ?
Please help!
real-analysis
real-analysis
edited Dec 17 '18 at 4:12
Tianlalu
3,08621038
3,08621038
asked Dec 17 '18 at 4:07
Debarghya MukherjeeDebarghya Mukherjee
352
352
$begingroup$
I dk what you are thinking. If $f(x)=x$ then $0=nx-nx=f(x)-nx=g(x).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I dk what you are thinking. If $f(x)=x$ then $0=nx-nx=f(x)-nx=g(x).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:26
$begingroup$
I dk what you are thinking. If $f(x)=x$ then $0=nx-nx=f(x)-nx=g(x).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:26
$begingroup$
I dk what you are thinking. If $f(x)=x$ then $0=nx-nx=f(x)-nx=g(x).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:26
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You have a couple options:
1) Show the compliment is open.
That’s is, the set $mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{xN}$ is open. This is easy since every number in this set can reside in a ball of radius smaller than the nearest $nx$. This might need to be done using two separate cases: $x = 0$ and $x not = 0$.
Clearly the first case is easy. The second is slightly harder.
2) Show the set contains all its limit points.
This might be a bit harder.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
So do we need to apply archime dean property
$endgroup$
– Debarghya Mukherjee
Dec 17 '18 at 4:33
$begingroup$
For the case x is not zero, then we take a number in the set R N, say y. Now dividing that number by x, we get, y/x. By the Archimedean property, there exist n such that n <= y/x <= n+1. So xn <= y <= x(n+1). Now you just need to show that this y is in an open ball
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– gdepaul
Dec 17 '18 at 4:36
$begingroup$
Complement, not compliment. Related to the word "complete".
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
(gdepaul's answer contains suggestions for alternate approaches. This one focuses on the idea laid out in the question)
And where would you go from there? You went from a fixed $x$ and an infinite collection of $n$ to a fixed $n$ and variable $x$; to recover the set we care about, we would have to take an intersection of infinitely many versions. That - well, an intersection of infinitely many open sets is not necessarily open.
I don't see this approach working.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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active
oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You have a couple options:
1) Show the compliment is open.
That’s is, the set $mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{xN}$ is open. This is easy since every number in this set can reside in a ball of radius smaller than the nearest $nx$. This might need to be done using two separate cases: $x = 0$ and $x not = 0$.
Clearly the first case is easy. The second is slightly harder.
2) Show the set contains all its limit points.
This might be a bit harder.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
So do we need to apply archime dean property
$endgroup$
– Debarghya Mukherjee
Dec 17 '18 at 4:33
$begingroup$
For the case x is not zero, then we take a number in the set R N, say y. Now dividing that number by x, we get, y/x. By the Archimedean property, there exist n such that n <= y/x <= n+1. So xn <= y <= x(n+1). Now you just need to show that this y is in an open ball
$endgroup$
– gdepaul
Dec 17 '18 at 4:36
$begingroup$
Complement, not compliment. Related to the word "complete".
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have a couple options:
1) Show the compliment is open.
That’s is, the set $mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{xN}$ is open. This is easy since every number in this set can reside in a ball of radius smaller than the nearest $nx$. This might need to be done using two separate cases: $x = 0$ and $x not = 0$.
Clearly the first case is easy. The second is slightly harder.
2) Show the set contains all its limit points.
This might be a bit harder.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
So do we need to apply archime dean property
$endgroup$
– Debarghya Mukherjee
Dec 17 '18 at 4:33
$begingroup$
For the case x is not zero, then we take a number in the set R N, say y. Now dividing that number by x, we get, y/x. By the Archimedean property, there exist n such that n <= y/x <= n+1. So xn <= y <= x(n+1). Now you just need to show that this y is in an open ball
$endgroup$
– gdepaul
Dec 17 '18 at 4:36
$begingroup$
Complement, not compliment. Related to the word "complete".
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have a couple options:
1) Show the compliment is open.
That’s is, the set $mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{xN}$ is open. This is easy since every number in this set can reside in a ball of radius smaller than the nearest $nx$. This might need to be done using two separate cases: $x = 0$ and $x not = 0$.
Clearly the first case is easy. The second is slightly harder.
2) Show the set contains all its limit points.
This might be a bit harder.
$endgroup$
You have a couple options:
1) Show the compliment is open.
That’s is, the set $mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{xN}$ is open. This is easy since every number in this set can reside in a ball of radius smaller than the nearest $nx$. This might need to be done using two separate cases: $x = 0$ and $x not = 0$.
Clearly the first case is easy. The second is slightly harder.
2) Show the set contains all its limit points.
This might be a bit harder.
answered Dec 17 '18 at 4:23
gdepaulgdepaul
613
613
$begingroup$
So do we need to apply archime dean property
$endgroup$
– Debarghya Mukherjee
Dec 17 '18 at 4:33
$begingroup$
For the case x is not zero, then we take a number in the set R N, say y. Now dividing that number by x, we get, y/x. By the Archimedean property, there exist n such that n <= y/x <= n+1. So xn <= y <= x(n+1). Now you just need to show that this y is in an open ball
$endgroup$
– gdepaul
Dec 17 '18 at 4:36
$begingroup$
Complement, not compliment. Related to the word "complete".
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So do we need to apply archime dean property
$endgroup$
– Debarghya Mukherjee
Dec 17 '18 at 4:33
$begingroup$
For the case x is not zero, then we take a number in the set R N, say y. Now dividing that number by x, we get, y/x. By the Archimedean property, there exist n such that n <= y/x <= n+1. So xn <= y <= x(n+1). Now you just need to show that this y is in an open ball
$endgroup$
– gdepaul
Dec 17 '18 at 4:36
$begingroup$
Complement, not compliment. Related to the word "complete".
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:21
$begingroup$
So do we need to apply archime dean property
$endgroup$
– Debarghya Mukherjee
Dec 17 '18 at 4:33
$begingroup$
So do we need to apply archime dean property
$endgroup$
– Debarghya Mukherjee
Dec 17 '18 at 4:33
$begingroup$
For the case x is not zero, then we take a number in the set R N, say y. Now dividing that number by x, we get, y/x. By the Archimedean property, there exist n such that n <= y/x <= n+1. So xn <= y <= x(n+1). Now you just need to show that this y is in an open ball
$endgroup$
– gdepaul
Dec 17 '18 at 4:36
$begingroup$
For the case x is not zero, then we take a number in the set R N, say y. Now dividing that number by x, we get, y/x. By the Archimedean property, there exist n such that n <= y/x <= n+1. So xn <= y <= x(n+1). Now you just need to show that this y is in an open ball
$endgroup$
– gdepaul
Dec 17 '18 at 4:36
$begingroup$
Complement, not compliment. Related to the word "complete".
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:21
$begingroup$
Complement, not compliment. Related to the word "complete".
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
(gdepaul's answer contains suggestions for alternate approaches. This one focuses on the idea laid out in the question)
And where would you go from there? You went from a fixed $x$ and an infinite collection of $n$ to a fixed $n$ and variable $x$; to recover the set we care about, we would have to take an intersection of infinitely many versions. That - well, an intersection of infinitely many open sets is not necessarily open.
I don't see this approach working.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
(gdepaul's answer contains suggestions for alternate approaches. This one focuses on the idea laid out in the question)
And where would you go from there? You went from a fixed $x$ and an infinite collection of $n$ to a fixed $n$ and variable $x$; to recover the set we care about, we would have to take an intersection of infinitely many versions. That - well, an intersection of infinitely many open sets is not necessarily open.
I don't see this approach working.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
(gdepaul's answer contains suggestions for alternate approaches. This one focuses on the idea laid out in the question)
And where would you go from there? You went from a fixed $x$ and an infinite collection of $n$ to a fixed $n$ and variable $x$; to recover the set we care about, we would have to take an intersection of infinitely many versions. That - well, an intersection of infinitely many open sets is not necessarily open.
I don't see this approach working.
$endgroup$
(gdepaul's answer contains suggestions for alternate approaches. This one focuses on the idea laid out in the question)
And where would you go from there? You went from a fixed $x$ and an infinite collection of $n$ to a fixed $n$ and variable $x$; to recover the set we care about, we would have to take an intersection of infinitely many versions. That - well, an intersection of infinitely many open sets is not necessarily open.
I don't see this approach working.
answered Dec 17 '18 at 4:24
jmerryjmerry
4,334514
4,334514
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I dk what you are thinking. If $f(x)=x$ then $0=nx-nx=f(x)-nx=g(x).$
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 17 '18 at 6:26