Deciding convergence of a sequence of functions











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I am given the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=x^n - x^{2n}$ on $[0,1]$. I must define a function $f(x)$ as a pointwise limit function on the indicated interval. If it is uniform, I must then find a sequence of real numbers $B_n rightarrow 0$ such that $|f_n(x) - f(x)| leq B_n$ for all $x$ in the interval. If not, I must find an $epsilon > 0$ and a sequence $x_n$ such that $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| geq epsilon$ for all $n$.



My attempted solution: I deduced that $f(x) = 0$ for $x in [0,1]$. I looked to see if such a $B_n$ existed, so I took the derivative of $f_n(x)$ and found the maximum to occur at $x=(frac{1}{2})^{frac{1}{n}}$. Using this as $B_n$ we get that $B_n rightarrow 1$ as $n rightarrow infty$. Therefore, $f_n(x)$ should not uniformly converge (I am not sure if this is a correct conclusion).



Assuming my previous conclusion is correct, I am having a hard time choosing an $epsilon$ where I can show $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| = epsilon$ to show it is not uniformly convergent. Algebra is and has always been my weakest skill, so I am not sure if I am missing a clever choice, or if I did something wrong in my problem. Any help is appreciated, please let me know if I need to elaborate more on something. Thanks.










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  • Take $epsilon=1/2$.
    – hamam_Abdallah
    Dec 2 at 20:17










  • @hamam_Abdallah That will not work.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Dec 2 at 20:27















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I am given the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=x^n - x^{2n}$ on $[0,1]$. I must define a function $f(x)$ as a pointwise limit function on the indicated interval. If it is uniform, I must then find a sequence of real numbers $B_n rightarrow 0$ such that $|f_n(x) - f(x)| leq B_n$ for all $x$ in the interval. If not, I must find an $epsilon > 0$ and a sequence $x_n$ such that $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| geq epsilon$ for all $n$.



My attempted solution: I deduced that $f(x) = 0$ for $x in [0,1]$. I looked to see if such a $B_n$ existed, so I took the derivative of $f_n(x)$ and found the maximum to occur at $x=(frac{1}{2})^{frac{1}{n}}$. Using this as $B_n$ we get that $B_n rightarrow 1$ as $n rightarrow infty$. Therefore, $f_n(x)$ should not uniformly converge (I am not sure if this is a correct conclusion).



Assuming my previous conclusion is correct, I am having a hard time choosing an $epsilon$ where I can show $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| = epsilon$ to show it is not uniformly convergent. Algebra is and has always been my weakest skill, so I am not sure if I am missing a clever choice, or if I did something wrong in my problem. Any help is appreciated, please let me know if I need to elaborate more on something. Thanks.










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  • Take $epsilon=1/2$.
    – hamam_Abdallah
    Dec 2 at 20:17










  • @hamam_Abdallah That will not work.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Dec 2 at 20:27













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I am given the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=x^n - x^{2n}$ on $[0,1]$. I must define a function $f(x)$ as a pointwise limit function on the indicated interval. If it is uniform, I must then find a sequence of real numbers $B_n rightarrow 0$ such that $|f_n(x) - f(x)| leq B_n$ for all $x$ in the interval. If not, I must find an $epsilon > 0$ and a sequence $x_n$ such that $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| geq epsilon$ for all $n$.



My attempted solution: I deduced that $f(x) = 0$ for $x in [0,1]$. I looked to see if such a $B_n$ existed, so I took the derivative of $f_n(x)$ and found the maximum to occur at $x=(frac{1}{2})^{frac{1}{n}}$. Using this as $B_n$ we get that $B_n rightarrow 1$ as $n rightarrow infty$. Therefore, $f_n(x)$ should not uniformly converge (I am not sure if this is a correct conclusion).



Assuming my previous conclusion is correct, I am having a hard time choosing an $epsilon$ where I can show $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| = epsilon$ to show it is not uniformly convergent. Algebra is and has always been my weakest skill, so I am not sure if I am missing a clever choice, or if I did something wrong in my problem. Any help is appreciated, please let me know if I need to elaborate more on something. Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




hkj447 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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I am given the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=x^n - x^{2n}$ on $[0,1]$. I must define a function $f(x)$ as a pointwise limit function on the indicated interval. If it is uniform, I must then find a sequence of real numbers $B_n rightarrow 0$ such that $|f_n(x) - f(x)| leq B_n$ for all $x$ in the interval. If not, I must find an $epsilon > 0$ and a sequence $x_n$ such that $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| geq epsilon$ for all $n$.



My attempted solution: I deduced that $f(x) = 0$ for $x in [0,1]$. I looked to see if such a $B_n$ existed, so I took the derivative of $f_n(x)$ and found the maximum to occur at $x=(frac{1}{2})^{frac{1}{n}}$. Using this as $B_n$ we get that $B_n rightarrow 1$ as $n rightarrow infty$. Therefore, $f_n(x)$ should not uniformly converge (I am not sure if this is a correct conclusion).



Assuming my previous conclusion is correct, I am having a hard time choosing an $epsilon$ where I can show $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| = epsilon$ to show it is not uniformly convergent. Algebra is and has always been my weakest skill, so I am not sure if I am missing a clever choice, or if I did something wrong in my problem. Any help is appreciated, please let me know if I need to elaborate more on something. Thanks.







real-analysis convergence uniform-convergence sequence-of-function






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edited Dec 2 at 20:28









José Carlos Santos

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asked Dec 2 at 20:11









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  • Take $epsilon=1/2$.
    – hamam_Abdallah
    Dec 2 at 20:17










  • @hamam_Abdallah That will not work.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Dec 2 at 20:27


















  • Take $epsilon=1/2$.
    – hamam_Abdallah
    Dec 2 at 20:17










  • @hamam_Abdallah That will not work.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Dec 2 at 20:27
















Take $epsilon=1/2$.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 2 at 20:17




Take $epsilon=1/2$.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 2 at 20:17












@hamam_Abdallah That will not work.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 2 at 20:27




@hamam_Abdallah That will not work.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 2 at 20:27










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It's more simple than that. Since$$f_nleft(sqrt[n]{frac12}right)=frac14,$$just use $varepsilon=frac14$ to prove that the convergence is not uniform.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    up vote
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    down vote



    accepted










    It's more simple than that. Since$$f_nleft(sqrt[n]{frac12}right)=frac14,$$just use $varepsilon=frac14$ to prove that the convergence is not uniform.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
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      It's more simple than that. Since$$f_nleft(sqrt[n]{frac12}right)=frac14,$$just use $varepsilon=frac14$ to prove that the convergence is not uniform.






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        up vote
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        accepted






        It's more simple than that. Since$$f_nleft(sqrt[n]{frac12}right)=frac14,$$just use $varepsilon=frac14$ to prove that the convergence is not uniform.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        It's more simple than that. Since$$f_nleft(sqrt[n]{frac12}right)=frac14,$$just use $varepsilon=frac14$ to prove that the convergence is not uniform.







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 2 at 20:18









        José Carlos Santos

        144k20114214




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