Let $Ainmathbb{R}^{ntimes n}$ such that $A^2=-I$. Find all eigenvalues of A.











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The conclusion I got was A has no real eigenvalues.



Can anyone tell me if it's right or what are these eigenvalues?










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    You're right: the eigenvalues are not in $mathbb R$. However, $A$ does have complex eigenvalues; see greedoid's answer. It is actually often the case that a real $ntimes n$ matrix will have complex eigenvalues.
    – Dave
    Dec 2 at 20:30















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












The conclusion I got was A has no real eigenvalues.



Can anyone tell me if it's right or what are these eigenvalues?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Juliana de Souza is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 2




    You're right: the eigenvalues are not in $mathbb R$. However, $A$ does have complex eigenvalues; see greedoid's answer. It is actually often the case that a real $ntimes n$ matrix will have complex eigenvalues.
    – Dave
    Dec 2 at 20:30













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











The conclusion I got was A has no real eigenvalues.



Can anyone tell me if it's right or what are these eigenvalues?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Juliana de Souza is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











The conclusion I got was A has no real eigenvalues.



Can anyone tell me if it's right or what are these eigenvalues?







linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors






share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Juliana de Souza is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Juliana de Souza is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question






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Juliana de Souza is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked Dec 2 at 20:14









Juliana de Souza

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656




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Juliana de Souza is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Juliana de Souza is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








  • 2




    You're right: the eigenvalues are not in $mathbb R$. However, $A$ does have complex eigenvalues; see greedoid's answer. It is actually often the case that a real $ntimes n$ matrix will have complex eigenvalues.
    – Dave
    Dec 2 at 20:30














  • 2




    You're right: the eigenvalues are not in $mathbb R$. However, $A$ does have complex eigenvalues; see greedoid's answer. It is actually often the case that a real $ntimes n$ matrix will have complex eigenvalues.
    – Dave
    Dec 2 at 20:30








2




2




You're right: the eigenvalues are not in $mathbb R$. However, $A$ does have complex eigenvalues; see greedoid's answer. It is actually often the case that a real $ntimes n$ matrix will have complex eigenvalues.
– Dave
Dec 2 at 20:30




You're right: the eigenvalues are not in $mathbb R$. However, $A$ does have complex eigenvalues; see greedoid's answer. It is actually often the case that a real $ntimes n$ matrix will have complex eigenvalues.
– Dave
Dec 2 at 20:30










1 Answer
1






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votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










If $Av = lambda v$ then $$ A^2v = A( lambda v) = lambda (Av) = lambda^2v $$



But $$A^2v = -Iv=-v implies ( lambda^2+1)v = 0$$



So $ lambda =pm i$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I do this. If $Ainmathbb{R}^{ntimes n}$ there is no problem of the eigenvalues being in $mathbb{C}$?
    – Juliana de Souza
    Dec 2 at 20:22








  • 2




    No, ther is no problem with $mathbb{C}$. It is the same as if you have a polynomial with real coeficients. It can have comples roots.
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:32








  • 1




    You can see something similary here math.stackexchange.com/questions/2314703/…
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:33










  • Yes, there is a problem. Look at the case $n=3$.
    – loup blanc
    Dec 2 at 21:47











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










If $Av = lambda v$ then $$ A^2v = A( lambda v) = lambda (Av) = lambda^2v $$



But $$A^2v = -Iv=-v implies ( lambda^2+1)v = 0$$



So $ lambda =pm i$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I do this. If $Ainmathbb{R}^{ntimes n}$ there is no problem of the eigenvalues being in $mathbb{C}$?
    – Juliana de Souza
    Dec 2 at 20:22








  • 2




    No, ther is no problem with $mathbb{C}$. It is the same as if you have a polynomial with real coeficients. It can have comples roots.
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:32








  • 1




    You can see something similary here math.stackexchange.com/questions/2314703/…
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:33










  • Yes, there is a problem. Look at the case $n=3$.
    – loup blanc
    Dec 2 at 21:47















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










If $Av = lambda v$ then $$ A^2v = A( lambda v) = lambda (Av) = lambda^2v $$



But $$A^2v = -Iv=-v implies ( lambda^2+1)v = 0$$



So $ lambda =pm i$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I do this. If $Ainmathbb{R}^{ntimes n}$ there is no problem of the eigenvalues being in $mathbb{C}$?
    – Juliana de Souza
    Dec 2 at 20:22








  • 2




    No, ther is no problem with $mathbb{C}$. It is the same as if you have a polynomial with real coeficients. It can have comples roots.
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:32








  • 1




    You can see something similary here math.stackexchange.com/questions/2314703/…
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:33










  • Yes, there is a problem. Look at the case $n=3$.
    – loup blanc
    Dec 2 at 21:47













up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






If $Av = lambda v$ then $$ A^2v = A( lambda v) = lambda (Av) = lambda^2v $$



But $$A^2v = -Iv=-v implies ( lambda^2+1)v = 0$$



So $ lambda =pm i$.






share|cite|improve this answer












If $Av = lambda v$ then $$ A^2v = A( lambda v) = lambda (Av) = lambda^2v $$



But $$A^2v = -Iv=-v implies ( lambda^2+1)v = 0$$



So $ lambda =pm i$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 2 at 20:18









greedoid

36.2k114591




36.2k114591












  • I do this. If $Ainmathbb{R}^{ntimes n}$ there is no problem of the eigenvalues being in $mathbb{C}$?
    – Juliana de Souza
    Dec 2 at 20:22








  • 2




    No, ther is no problem with $mathbb{C}$. It is the same as if you have a polynomial with real coeficients. It can have comples roots.
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:32








  • 1




    You can see something similary here math.stackexchange.com/questions/2314703/…
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:33










  • Yes, there is a problem. Look at the case $n=3$.
    – loup blanc
    Dec 2 at 21:47


















  • I do this. If $Ainmathbb{R}^{ntimes n}$ there is no problem of the eigenvalues being in $mathbb{C}$?
    – Juliana de Souza
    Dec 2 at 20:22








  • 2




    No, ther is no problem with $mathbb{C}$. It is the same as if you have a polynomial with real coeficients. It can have comples roots.
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:32








  • 1




    You can see something similary here math.stackexchange.com/questions/2314703/…
    – greedoid
    Dec 2 at 20:33










  • Yes, there is a problem. Look at the case $n=3$.
    – loup blanc
    Dec 2 at 21:47
















I do this. If $Ainmathbb{R}^{ntimes n}$ there is no problem of the eigenvalues being in $mathbb{C}$?
– Juliana de Souza
Dec 2 at 20:22






I do this. If $Ainmathbb{R}^{ntimes n}$ there is no problem of the eigenvalues being in $mathbb{C}$?
– Juliana de Souza
Dec 2 at 20:22






2




2




No, ther is no problem with $mathbb{C}$. It is the same as if you have a polynomial with real coeficients. It can have comples roots.
– greedoid
Dec 2 at 20:32






No, ther is no problem with $mathbb{C}$. It is the same as if you have a polynomial with real coeficients. It can have comples roots.
– greedoid
Dec 2 at 20:32






1




1




You can see something similary here math.stackexchange.com/questions/2314703/…
– greedoid
Dec 2 at 20:33




You can see something similary here math.stackexchange.com/questions/2314703/…
– greedoid
Dec 2 at 20:33












Yes, there is a problem. Look at the case $n=3$.
– loup blanc
Dec 2 at 21:47




Yes, there is a problem. Look at the case $n=3$.
– loup blanc
Dec 2 at 21:47










Juliana de Souza is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










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