Solving $intlimits_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^8+1}dx$ through Glasser's Master Theorem












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Trying to find a way to solve




$$int_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^8+1}dx$$




through Glasser's Master Theorem, more specifically the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Preferably, I'm looking for the closed form solution, and I am already aware of how to attain this through contour integration.




Solution: $$frac{pi}{4sin(frac{pi}{8})}$$




Link to general closed form solution: solutions to $int_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^n+1}dx$ for even $n$










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  • $begingroup$
    you mean the indefinite integral ? Because the closed form is just a number otherwise ..
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    – Malik
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:24






  • 1




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    @Malik I mean closed form as in "pi/e" or something an not just a decimal
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    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:30










  • $begingroup$
    (Seeing as you do know the answer, you might as well include it in the question.)
    $endgroup$
    – Ian
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Ian okay sure thing
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:31










  • $begingroup$
    Is it definitely the case that there is a route through Cauchy–Schlömilch?
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:44
















8












$begingroup$


Trying to find a way to solve




$$int_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^8+1}dx$$




through Glasser's Master Theorem, more specifically the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Preferably, I'm looking for the closed form solution, and I am already aware of how to attain this through contour integration.




Solution: $$frac{pi}{4sin(frac{pi}{8})}$$




Link to general closed form solution: solutions to $int_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^n+1}dx$ for even $n$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    you mean the indefinite integral ? Because the closed form is just a number otherwise ..
    $endgroup$
    – Malik
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Malik I mean closed form as in "pi/e" or something an not just a decimal
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:30










  • $begingroup$
    (Seeing as you do know the answer, you might as well include it in the question.)
    $endgroup$
    – Ian
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Ian okay sure thing
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:31










  • $begingroup$
    Is it definitely the case that there is a route through Cauchy–Schlömilch?
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:44














8












8








8


1



$begingroup$


Trying to find a way to solve




$$int_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^8+1}dx$$




through Glasser's Master Theorem, more specifically the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Preferably, I'm looking for the closed form solution, and I am already aware of how to attain this through contour integration.




Solution: $$frac{pi}{4sin(frac{pi}{8})}$$




Link to general closed form solution: solutions to $int_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^n+1}dx$ for even $n$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Trying to find a way to solve




$$int_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^8+1}dx$$




through Glasser's Master Theorem, more specifically the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Preferably, I'm looking for the closed form solution, and I am already aware of how to attain this through contour integration.




Solution: $$frac{pi}{4sin(frac{pi}{8})}$$




Link to general closed form solution: solutions to $int_{-infty}^infty frac{1}{x^n+1}dx$ for even $n$







integration definite-integrals improper-integrals closed-form






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 8 at 5:37









mrtaurho

6,09271641




6,09271641










asked Dec 19 '18 at 0:20









Suchetan DonthaSuchetan Dontha

14812




14812












  • $begingroup$
    you mean the indefinite integral ? Because the closed form is just a number otherwise ..
    $endgroup$
    – Malik
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Malik I mean closed form as in "pi/e" or something an not just a decimal
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:30










  • $begingroup$
    (Seeing as you do know the answer, you might as well include it in the question.)
    $endgroup$
    – Ian
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Ian okay sure thing
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:31










  • $begingroup$
    Is it definitely the case that there is a route through Cauchy–Schlömilch?
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:44


















  • $begingroup$
    you mean the indefinite integral ? Because the closed form is just a number otherwise ..
    $endgroup$
    – Malik
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Malik I mean closed form as in "pi/e" or something an not just a decimal
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:30










  • $begingroup$
    (Seeing as you do know the answer, you might as well include it in the question.)
    $endgroup$
    – Ian
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Ian okay sure thing
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:31










  • $begingroup$
    Is it definitely the case that there is a route through Cauchy–Schlömilch?
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 19 '18 at 0:44
















$begingroup$
you mean the indefinite integral ? Because the closed form is just a number otherwise ..
$endgroup$
– Malik
Dec 19 '18 at 0:24




$begingroup$
you mean the indefinite integral ? Because the closed form is just a number otherwise ..
$endgroup$
– Malik
Dec 19 '18 at 0:24




1




1




$begingroup$
@Malik I mean closed form as in "pi/e" or something an not just a decimal
$endgroup$
– Suchetan Dontha
Dec 19 '18 at 0:30




$begingroup$
@Malik I mean closed form as in "pi/e" or something an not just a decimal
$endgroup$
– Suchetan Dontha
Dec 19 '18 at 0:30












$begingroup$
(Seeing as you do know the answer, you might as well include it in the question.)
$endgroup$
– Ian
Dec 19 '18 at 0:30




$begingroup$
(Seeing as you do know the answer, you might as well include it in the question.)
$endgroup$
– Ian
Dec 19 '18 at 0:30












$begingroup$
@Ian okay sure thing
$endgroup$
– Suchetan Dontha
Dec 19 '18 at 0:31




$begingroup$
@Ian okay sure thing
$endgroup$
– Suchetan Dontha
Dec 19 '18 at 0:31












$begingroup$
Is it definitely the case that there is a route through Cauchy–Schlömilch?
$endgroup$
– Mason
Dec 19 '18 at 0:44




$begingroup$
Is it definitely the case that there is a route through Cauchy–Schlömilch?
$endgroup$
– Mason
Dec 19 '18 at 0:44










4 Answers
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I don't know what is GMT. I looked it up on Wikipedia and it states $u = x - 1/x$ as Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Here is my solution that splits the integral into 4 integrals, each one of them uses $u = x - 1/x$. I will happily delete the answer if it is useless or wrong :)





$$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{1+ x^8} dx = -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 - sqrt{2}}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} + dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + sqrt{2}}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} \= -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} +dfrac{sqrt{2} +1}{2 sqrt{2}} int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} \+ dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}+dfrac{sqrt2 -1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} $$





$$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1 + 1/x^2}{ (x -1/x)^2 + 2 - sqrt 2}$$



$u = x - 1/x, du = 1 + 1/x^2$



$$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{u^2 + (2 - sqrt 2 )} du $$





$$J = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1}$$



$x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



$$J = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



Adding the two equations,
$$J = int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



This can be solved with $ u = t - 1/t$ like the previous equation.





$$int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1 + 1/x^2 }{(x - 1/x)^2 + sqrt2 + 2}$$



Similar to first integral, now.





$$I = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = 2int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}$$



$x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



$$ I = int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 + sqrt2 t^2 + 1} dt $$



Can be solved with $u = t - 1/t$ like other integrals here.






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  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for your solution, although the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution states that $int_{-infty}^infty F(u)dx = int_{-infty}^infty F(x)dx$, notice the "F(u)dx". This is not regular u substitution, but still plus +1 for the effort. Please don't delete it.
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 13:59












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    I won't, no worries :)
    $endgroup$
    – user8277998
    Dec 19 '18 at 15:12



















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I believe the most direct way for tackling such integrals is to exploit Euler's Beta function and the reflection formula for the $Gamma$ function: assuming $m>1$,



$$ int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}stackrel{frac{1}{1+x^m}to u}{=}frac{1}{m}int_{0}^{1}u^{-frac{m-1}{m}}(1-u)^{-frac{1}{m}},du =frac{Gammaleft(tfrac{1}{m}right)Gammaleft(tfrac{m-1}{m}right)}{m,Gamma(1)}=frac{pi/m}{sin(pi/m)}.$$
Another way is to exploit the reflection formula for the digamma function, in the form
$$ sum_{ngeq 0}left[frac{1}{an+b}+frac{1}{an+(a-b)}right]=frac{pi}{a},cotleft(frac{pi b}{a}right)$$
via
$$begin{eqnarray*} int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}&=&int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}}{1+x^m},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}-x^m-x^{2m-2}}{1-x^{2m}},dx\
&=& sum_{ngeq 0}left[color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+1}}+color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m-1}}-color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m+1}}-color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+2m-1}}right]\&=&frac{pi}{2m}left[cotleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)+tanleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)right].end{eqnarray*}$$

Through Glasser's master theorem, in the $m=8$ case we may state



$$begin{eqnarray*} int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^8}&stackrel{xmapsto zcdot 2^{1/4}}{=}&int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dz}{(1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)(1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)} \&=&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{2sqrt{2}z^2}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
\&stackrel{zmapsto 1/z}{=}&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{z^4}{2sqrt{2}}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
\&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{z^4}left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dz
\&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}z^2left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dzend{eqnarray*}$$

then invoke integration by parts and averaging in order to convert the original integral into
$$begin{eqnarray*}int_{0}^{+infty}rleft(x^2+frac{1}{x^2}right),dx &=& frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}rleft(left(x-frac{1}{x}right)^2+2right),dx\&stackrel{text{GMT}}{=}&frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dx=int_{0}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dxend{eqnarray*}$$
with $r$ being a rational function. On the other hand, this approach looks pretty forced/artificial, especially if compared to the previous ones.






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    NOT A SOLUTION:



    In case you are interested in another 'real' based method to solve this - I actually posted a question on this matter (with my solution) yesterday.



    In terms of Glasser's Master Theorem (GMT), I'm not sure it can be positioned that way to be honest... or better put that it would require some very careful (and algebraically extensive) work to yield it into the desired form. In saying that, I could be very wrong about that.



    Have you considered starting with a form that is GMT compliant (with free parameters) and attempting to solve? I tried with a few forms and was unable to yield a solution.



    In terms of compliant forms, I tried to 'reverse engineer' the result, so I started with the following expressions and tried to solve for the unknown constants:



    begin{equation}
    frac{1}{x^8 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
    end{equation}

    This didn't work, so I tried:
    begin{equation}
    frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1} - frac{b_2}{x - c_2}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
    end{equation}



    I tried a few others, but this was the method employed. As before, it was unsuccessful for me and so I tried different ways. Shame as it seems so close to being GMT applicable!






    share|cite|improve this answer











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    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for the info! And you may very well be right, it may not be possible in the form it is right now. What do you mean by starting in a form that is GMT compliant?
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      – Suchetan Dontha
      Dec 19 '18 at 4:00










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      @SuchetanDontha I've been faced with this before. I desperately tried to get it to work but couldn't (not to say it can't be done). Re Compliant - I will add more detail in my 'answer'. Am just in a meeting right now, but will be edit in 15 minutes.
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      – user150203
      Dec 19 '18 at 4:07










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      @SuchetanDontha - I have added more detail :-)
      $endgroup$
      – user150203
      Dec 19 '18 at 4:27










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      Thanks for the tips, although I don't have that much math experience under my belt, so brute force is the only way I can go! I think the difficult part here is the sin(pi/8) on the bottom of the solution. Even for x^6, the closed form solution simplifies to a nice pi times a coefficient, so i think some sort of trigonometric argument would need to come into play. However, I still believe it is possible and will keep trying.
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      – Suchetan Dontha
      Dec 19 '18 at 14:10










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      Excellent. When you get it out please post and tag me.
      $endgroup$
      – user150203
      Dec 19 '18 at 14:17



















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    I prefer to use Ramanujan's Master Theorem in situations like this which is a specific Master Theorem for the Mellin Transform.




    Ramanujan's Master Theorem



    Let $f(x)$ be an analytic function with a MacLaurin Expansion of the form
    $$f(x)=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{phi(k)}{k!}(-x)^k$$then the Mellin Transform of this function is given by
    $$int_0^{infty}x^{s-1}f(x)dx=Gamma(s)phi(-s)$$




    The structure of the integrande remindes us the geometric series. First of all noting that we have an even function followed by the substitution $u=x^8$ yields to



    $$begin{align*}
    mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}&=2int_0^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}\
    &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-x^8)^{n}mathrm dx\
    &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-u)^{n}frac{mathrm du}{8u^{7/8}}\
    &=frac14 int_0^infty u^{-7/8}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{n!}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du
    end{align*}$$



    Now we can use Ramanujan's Master Theorem with $s=frac18$ and $phi(n)=Gamma(n+1)$ to get



    $$begin{align*}
    mathfrak I=frac14 int_0^infty u^{1/8-1}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{Gamma(n+1)}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du&=frac14Gammaleft(frac18right)Gammaleft(1-frac18right)\
    &=frac14fracpi{sinleft(fracpi8right)}
    end{align*}$$




    $$therefore~mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}~=~fracpi{4sinleft(fracpi8right)}$$




    The latter manipulations are done via Euler's Reflection Formula. Overall this approach is pretty straightforward and can be easily generalised for arbitrary powers of $x$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











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    • $begingroup$
      How is $phi(s)$ defined when $s$ is not a nonnegative integer? // Later on, the substitution $w=frac1{1+x^8}$ works more quickly and simply.
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      – Did
      Jan 8 at 8:24










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      @Did I am not exactly sure concerning your question: are you asking for the general case or regarding to this particular application? Hence for the first situation one have to consider that the integral representation $-$ as Ramanujan used it in the first place $-$ only works out for $0<Re(s)<1$.
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      – mrtaurho
      Jan 8 at 8:52










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      There are tons of different functions $phi$ such that the first identity in your paragraph "Ramanujan's Master Theorem" holds, but not all of them can make its conclusion true when $s$ is not an integer. For example, if $phi$ works, then $phi_1:smapstophi(s)+7sin(pi s)$ works as well. So, which one should one choose for the conclusion to hold?
      $endgroup$
      – Did
      Jan 8 at 8:56










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      @Did To be honest I am a little bit confused right now. What exactly is the aim of your commentary? Could you maybe rephrase your last question?
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      – mrtaurho
      Jan 8 at 9:01






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      Yes it is, or rather, you do not understand it. Actually, you seem to be merely reproducing some wrong formulations from the WP page, neglecting the fact that, in RMT, $phi$ is not just any function such that the expansion of $f$ holds.
      $endgroup$
      – Did
      Jan 8 at 9:35














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    4 Answers
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    4 Answers
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    $begingroup$

    I don't know what is GMT. I looked it up on Wikipedia and it states $u = x - 1/x$ as Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Here is my solution that splits the integral into 4 integrals, each one of them uses $u = x - 1/x$. I will happily delete the answer if it is useless or wrong :)





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{1+ x^8} dx = -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 - sqrt{2}}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} + dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + sqrt{2}}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} \= -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} +dfrac{sqrt{2} +1}{2 sqrt{2}} int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} \+ dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}+dfrac{sqrt2 -1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} $$





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1 + 1/x^2}{ (x -1/x)^2 + 2 - sqrt 2}$$



    $u = x - 1/x, du = 1 + 1/x^2$



    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{u^2 + (2 - sqrt 2 )} du $$





    $$J = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1}$$



    $x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



    $$J = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



    Adding the two equations,
    $$J = int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



    This can be solved with $ u = t - 1/t$ like the previous equation.





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1 + 1/x^2 }{(x - 1/x)^2 + sqrt2 + 2}$$



    Similar to first integral, now.





    $$I = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = 2int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}$$



    $x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



    $$ I = int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 + sqrt2 t^2 + 1} dt $$



    Can be solved with $u = t - 1/t$ like other integrals here.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your solution, although the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution states that $int_{-infty}^infty F(u)dx = int_{-infty}^infty F(x)dx$, notice the "F(u)dx". This is not regular u substitution, but still plus +1 for the effort. Please don't delete it.
      $endgroup$
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Dec 19 '18 at 13:59












    • $begingroup$
      I won't, no worries :)
      $endgroup$
      – user8277998
      Dec 19 '18 at 15:12
















    4












    $begingroup$

    I don't know what is GMT. I looked it up on Wikipedia and it states $u = x - 1/x$ as Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Here is my solution that splits the integral into 4 integrals, each one of them uses $u = x - 1/x$. I will happily delete the answer if it is useless or wrong :)





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{1+ x^8} dx = -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 - sqrt{2}}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} + dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + sqrt{2}}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} \= -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} +dfrac{sqrt{2} +1}{2 sqrt{2}} int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} \+ dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}+dfrac{sqrt2 -1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} $$





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1 + 1/x^2}{ (x -1/x)^2 + 2 - sqrt 2}$$



    $u = x - 1/x, du = 1 + 1/x^2$



    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{u^2 + (2 - sqrt 2 )} du $$





    $$J = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1}$$



    $x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



    $$J = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



    Adding the two equations,
    $$J = int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



    This can be solved with $ u = t - 1/t$ like the previous equation.





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1 + 1/x^2 }{(x - 1/x)^2 + sqrt2 + 2}$$



    Similar to first integral, now.





    $$I = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = 2int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}$$



    $x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



    $$ I = int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 + sqrt2 t^2 + 1} dt $$



    Can be solved with $u = t - 1/t$ like other integrals here.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your solution, although the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution states that $int_{-infty}^infty F(u)dx = int_{-infty}^infty F(x)dx$, notice the "F(u)dx". This is not regular u substitution, but still plus +1 for the effort. Please don't delete it.
      $endgroup$
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Dec 19 '18 at 13:59












    • $begingroup$
      I won't, no worries :)
      $endgroup$
      – user8277998
      Dec 19 '18 at 15:12














    4












    4








    4





    $begingroup$

    I don't know what is GMT. I looked it up on Wikipedia and it states $u = x - 1/x$ as Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Here is my solution that splits the integral into 4 integrals, each one of them uses $u = x - 1/x$. I will happily delete the answer if it is useless or wrong :)





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{1+ x^8} dx = -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 - sqrt{2}}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} + dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + sqrt{2}}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} \= -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} +dfrac{sqrt{2} +1}{2 sqrt{2}} int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} \+ dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}+dfrac{sqrt2 -1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} $$





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1 + 1/x^2}{ (x -1/x)^2 + 2 - sqrt 2}$$



    $u = x - 1/x, du = 1 + 1/x^2$



    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{u^2 + (2 - sqrt 2 )} du $$





    $$J = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1}$$



    $x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



    $$J = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



    Adding the two equations,
    $$J = int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



    This can be solved with $ u = t - 1/t$ like the previous equation.





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1 + 1/x^2 }{(x - 1/x)^2 + sqrt2 + 2}$$



    Similar to first integral, now.





    $$I = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = 2int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}$$



    $x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



    $$ I = int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 + sqrt2 t^2 + 1} dt $$



    Can be solved with $u = t - 1/t$ like other integrals here.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    I don't know what is GMT. I looked it up on Wikipedia and it states $u = x - 1/x$ as Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution. Here is my solution that splits the integral into 4 integrals, each one of them uses $u = x - 1/x$. I will happily delete the answer if it is useless or wrong :)





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{1+ x^8} dx = -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 - sqrt{2}}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} + dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + sqrt{2}}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} \= -dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} +dfrac{sqrt{2} +1}{2 sqrt{2}} int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} \+ dfrac{1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}+dfrac{sqrt2 -1}{2 sqrt{2}}int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} $$





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1 + 1/x^2}{ (x -1/x)^2 + 2 - sqrt 2}$$



    $u = x - 1/x, du = 1 + 1/x^2$



    $$int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{u^2 + (2 - sqrt 2 )} du $$





    $$J = int^{infty}_{-infty} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1} = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{1}{x^4 - sqrt 2 x^2 + 1}$$



    $x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



    $$J = 2 int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



    Adding the two equations,
    $$J = int^{infty}_{0} dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 - sqrt 2 t^2 + 1} dt$$



    This can be solved with $ u = t - 1/t$ like the previous equation.





    $$int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{x^2 + 1 }{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1 + 1/x^2 }{(x - 1/x)^2 + sqrt2 + 2}$$



    Similar to first integral, now.





    $$I = int^{infty}_{-infty}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1} = 2int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{1}{x^4 + sqrt2 x^2 + 1}$$



    $x = 1/t, dx = -1/t^2 dt$



    $$ I = int^{infty}_{0}dfrac{t^2 + 1}{t^4 + sqrt2 t^2 + 1} dt $$



    Can be solved with $u = t - 1/t$ like other integrals here.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Dec 19 '18 at 13:03









    user8277998user8277998

    1,691521




    1,691521












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your solution, although the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution states that $int_{-infty}^infty F(u)dx = int_{-infty}^infty F(x)dx$, notice the "F(u)dx". This is not regular u substitution, but still plus +1 for the effort. Please don't delete it.
      $endgroup$
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Dec 19 '18 at 13:59












    • $begingroup$
      I won't, no worries :)
      $endgroup$
      – user8277998
      Dec 19 '18 at 15:12


















    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your solution, although the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution states that $int_{-infty}^infty F(u)dx = int_{-infty}^infty F(x)dx$, notice the "F(u)dx". This is not regular u substitution, but still plus +1 for the effort. Please don't delete it.
      $endgroup$
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Dec 19 '18 at 13:59












    • $begingroup$
      I won't, no worries :)
      $endgroup$
      – user8277998
      Dec 19 '18 at 15:12
















    $begingroup$
    Thanks for your solution, although the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution states that $int_{-infty}^infty F(u)dx = int_{-infty}^infty F(x)dx$, notice the "F(u)dx". This is not regular u substitution, but still plus +1 for the effort. Please don't delete it.
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 13:59






    $begingroup$
    Thanks for your solution, although the Cauchy–Schlömilch substitution states that $int_{-infty}^infty F(u)dx = int_{-infty}^infty F(x)dx$, notice the "F(u)dx". This is not regular u substitution, but still plus +1 for the effort. Please don't delete it.
    $endgroup$
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Dec 19 '18 at 13:59














    $begingroup$
    I won't, no worries :)
    $endgroup$
    – user8277998
    Dec 19 '18 at 15:12




    $begingroup$
    I won't, no worries :)
    $endgroup$
    – user8277998
    Dec 19 '18 at 15:12











    4












    $begingroup$

    I believe the most direct way for tackling such integrals is to exploit Euler's Beta function and the reflection formula for the $Gamma$ function: assuming $m>1$,



    $$ int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}stackrel{frac{1}{1+x^m}to u}{=}frac{1}{m}int_{0}^{1}u^{-frac{m-1}{m}}(1-u)^{-frac{1}{m}},du =frac{Gammaleft(tfrac{1}{m}right)Gammaleft(tfrac{m-1}{m}right)}{m,Gamma(1)}=frac{pi/m}{sin(pi/m)}.$$
    Another way is to exploit the reflection formula for the digamma function, in the form
    $$ sum_{ngeq 0}left[frac{1}{an+b}+frac{1}{an+(a-b)}right]=frac{pi}{a},cotleft(frac{pi b}{a}right)$$
    via
    $$begin{eqnarray*} int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}&=&int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}}{1+x^m},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}-x^m-x^{2m-2}}{1-x^{2m}},dx\
    &=& sum_{ngeq 0}left[color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+1}}+color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m-1}}-color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m+1}}-color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+2m-1}}right]\&=&frac{pi}{2m}left[cotleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)+tanleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)right].end{eqnarray*}$$

    Through Glasser's master theorem, in the $m=8$ case we may state



    $$begin{eqnarray*} int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^8}&stackrel{xmapsto zcdot 2^{1/4}}{=}&int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dz}{(1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)(1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)} \&=&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{2sqrt{2}z^2}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
    \&stackrel{zmapsto 1/z}{=}&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{z^4}{2sqrt{2}}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
    \&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{z^4}left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dz
    \&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}z^2left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dzend{eqnarray*}$$

    then invoke integration by parts and averaging in order to convert the original integral into
    $$begin{eqnarray*}int_{0}^{+infty}rleft(x^2+frac{1}{x^2}right),dx &=& frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}rleft(left(x-frac{1}{x}right)^2+2right),dx\&stackrel{text{GMT}}{=}&frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dx=int_{0}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dxend{eqnarray*}$$
    with $r$ being a rational function. On the other hand, this approach looks pretty forced/artificial, especially if compared to the previous ones.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      4












      $begingroup$

      I believe the most direct way for tackling such integrals is to exploit Euler's Beta function and the reflection formula for the $Gamma$ function: assuming $m>1$,



      $$ int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}stackrel{frac{1}{1+x^m}to u}{=}frac{1}{m}int_{0}^{1}u^{-frac{m-1}{m}}(1-u)^{-frac{1}{m}},du =frac{Gammaleft(tfrac{1}{m}right)Gammaleft(tfrac{m-1}{m}right)}{m,Gamma(1)}=frac{pi/m}{sin(pi/m)}.$$
      Another way is to exploit the reflection formula for the digamma function, in the form
      $$ sum_{ngeq 0}left[frac{1}{an+b}+frac{1}{an+(a-b)}right]=frac{pi}{a},cotleft(frac{pi b}{a}right)$$
      via
      $$begin{eqnarray*} int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}&=&int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}}{1+x^m},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}-x^m-x^{2m-2}}{1-x^{2m}},dx\
      &=& sum_{ngeq 0}left[color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+1}}+color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m-1}}-color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m+1}}-color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+2m-1}}right]\&=&frac{pi}{2m}left[cotleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)+tanleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)right].end{eqnarray*}$$

      Through Glasser's master theorem, in the $m=8$ case we may state



      $$begin{eqnarray*} int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^8}&stackrel{xmapsto zcdot 2^{1/4}}{=}&int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dz}{(1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)(1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)} \&=&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{2sqrt{2}z^2}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
      \&stackrel{zmapsto 1/z}{=}&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{z^4}{2sqrt{2}}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
      \&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{z^4}left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dz
      \&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}z^2left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dzend{eqnarray*}$$

      then invoke integration by parts and averaging in order to convert the original integral into
      $$begin{eqnarray*}int_{0}^{+infty}rleft(x^2+frac{1}{x^2}right),dx &=& frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}rleft(left(x-frac{1}{x}right)^2+2right),dx\&stackrel{text{GMT}}{=}&frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dx=int_{0}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dxend{eqnarray*}$$
      with $r$ being a rational function. On the other hand, this approach looks pretty forced/artificial, especially if compared to the previous ones.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        I believe the most direct way for tackling such integrals is to exploit Euler's Beta function and the reflection formula for the $Gamma$ function: assuming $m>1$,



        $$ int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}stackrel{frac{1}{1+x^m}to u}{=}frac{1}{m}int_{0}^{1}u^{-frac{m-1}{m}}(1-u)^{-frac{1}{m}},du =frac{Gammaleft(tfrac{1}{m}right)Gammaleft(tfrac{m-1}{m}right)}{m,Gamma(1)}=frac{pi/m}{sin(pi/m)}.$$
        Another way is to exploit the reflection formula for the digamma function, in the form
        $$ sum_{ngeq 0}left[frac{1}{an+b}+frac{1}{an+(a-b)}right]=frac{pi}{a},cotleft(frac{pi b}{a}right)$$
        via
        $$begin{eqnarray*} int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}&=&int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}}{1+x^m},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}-x^m-x^{2m-2}}{1-x^{2m}},dx\
        &=& sum_{ngeq 0}left[color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+1}}+color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m-1}}-color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m+1}}-color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+2m-1}}right]\&=&frac{pi}{2m}left[cotleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)+tanleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)right].end{eqnarray*}$$

        Through Glasser's master theorem, in the $m=8$ case we may state



        $$begin{eqnarray*} int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^8}&stackrel{xmapsto zcdot 2^{1/4}}{=}&int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dz}{(1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)(1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)} \&=&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{2sqrt{2}z^2}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
        \&stackrel{zmapsto 1/z}{=}&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{z^4}{2sqrt{2}}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
        \&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{z^4}left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dz
        \&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}z^2left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dzend{eqnarray*}$$

        then invoke integration by parts and averaging in order to convert the original integral into
        $$begin{eqnarray*}int_{0}^{+infty}rleft(x^2+frac{1}{x^2}right),dx &=& frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}rleft(left(x-frac{1}{x}right)^2+2right),dx\&stackrel{text{GMT}}{=}&frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dx=int_{0}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dxend{eqnarray*}$$
        with $r$ being a rational function. On the other hand, this approach looks pretty forced/artificial, especially if compared to the previous ones.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I believe the most direct way for tackling such integrals is to exploit Euler's Beta function and the reflection formula for the $Gamma$ function: assuming $m>1$,



        $$ int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}stackrel{frac{1}{1+x^m}to u}{=}frac{1}{m}int_{0}^{1}u^{-frac{m-1}{m}}(1-u)^{-frac{1}{m}},du =frac{Gammaleft(tfrac{1}{m}right)Gammaleft(tfrac{m-1}{m}right)}{m,Gamma(1)}=frac{pi/m}{sin(pi/m)}.$$
        Another way is to exploit the reflection formula for the digamma function, in the form
        $$ sum_{ngeq 0}left[frac{1}{an+b}+frac{1}{an+(a-b)}right]=frac{pi}{a},cotleft(frac{pi b}{a}right)$$
        via
        $$begin{eqnarray*} int_{0}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^m}&=&int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}}{1+x^m},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1+x^{m-2}-x^m-x^{2m-2}}{1-x^{2m}},dx\
        &=& sum_{ngeq 0}left[color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+1}}+color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m-1}}-color{red}{frac{1}{2mn+m+1}}-color{blue}{frac{1}{2mn+2m-1}}right]\&=&frac{pi}{2m}left[cotleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)+tanleft(frac{pi}{2m}right)right].end{eqnarray*}$$

        Through Glasser's master theorem, in the $m=8$ case we may state



        $$begin{eqnarray*} int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dx}{1+x^8}&stackrel{xmapsto zcdot 2^{1/4}}{=}&int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{dz}{(1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)(1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4)} \&=&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{2sqrt{2}z^2}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
        \&stackrel{zmapsto 1/z}{=}&2int_{0}^{+infty}frac{z^4}{2sqrt{2}}left[frac{1}{1-sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}-frac{1}{1+sqrt{2}z^2+z^4}right],dz
        \&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}frac{1}{z^4}left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dz
        \&=&frac{1}{sqrt{2}}int_{0}^{+infty}z^2left[frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}-sqrt{2}+z^2}-frac{1}{frac{1}{z^2}+sqrt{2}+z^2}right],dzend{eqnarray*}$$

        then invoke integration by parts and averaging in order to convert the original integral into
        $$begin{eqnarray*}int_{0}^{+infty}rleft(x^2+frac{1}{x^2}right),dx &=& frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}rleft(left(x-frac{1}{x}right)^2+2right),dx\&stackrel{text{GMT}}{=}&frac{1}{2}int_{-infty}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dx=int_{0}^{+infty}r(x^2+2),dxend{eqnarray*}$$
        with $r$ being a rational function. On the other hand, this approach looks pretty forced/artificial, especially if compared to the previous ones.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 20 '18 at 0:47









        Jack D'AurizioJack D'Aurizio

        292k33284672




        292k33284672























            2












            $begingroup$

            NOT A SOLUTION:



            In case you are interested in another 'real' based method to solve this - I actually posted a question on this matter (with my solution) yesterday.



            In terms of Glasser's Master Theorem (GMT), I'm not sure it can be positioned that way to be honest... or better put that it would require some very careful (and algebraically extensive) work to yield it into the desired form. In saying that, I could be very wrong about that.



            Have you considered starting with a form that is GMT compliant (with free parameters) and attempting to solve? I tried with a few forms and was unable to yield a solution.



            In terms of compliant forms, I tried to 'reverse engineer' the result, so I started with the following expressions and tried to solve for the unknown constants:



            begin{equation}
            frac{1}{x^8 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
            end{equation}

            This didn't work, so I tried:
            begin{equation}
            frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1} - frac{b_2}{x - c_2}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
            end{equation}



            I tried a few others, but this was the method employed. As before, it was unsuccessful for me and so I tried different ways. Shame as it seems so close to being GMT applicable!






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the info! And you may very well be right, it may not be possible in the form it is right now. What do you mean by starting in a form that is GMT compliant?
              $endgroup$
              – Suchetan Dontha
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:00










            • $begingroup$
              @SuchetanDontha I've been faced with this before. I desperately tried to get it to work but couldn't (not to say it can't be done). Re Compliant - I will add more detail in my 'answer'. Am just in a meeting right now, but will be edit in 15 minutes.
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:07










            • $begingroup$
              @SuchetanDontha - I have added more detail :-)
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:27










            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the tips, although I don't have that much math experience under my belt, so brute force is the only way I can go! I think the difficult part here is the sin(pi/8) on the bottom of the solution. Even for x^6, the closed form solution simplifies to a nice pi times a coefficient, so i think some sort of trigonometric argument would need to come into play. However, I still believe it is possible and will keep trying.
              $endgroup$
              – Suchetan Dontha
              Dec 19 '18 at 14:10










            • $begingroup$
              Excellent. When you get it out please post and tag me.
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 14:17
















            2












            $begingroup$

            NOT A SOLUTION:



            In case you are interested in another 'real' based method to solve this - I actually posted a question on this matter (with my solution) yesterday.



            In terms of Glasser's Master Theorem (GMT), I'm not sure it can be positioned that way to be honest... or better put that it would require some very careful (and algebraically extensive) work to yield it into the desired form. In saying that, I could be very wrong about that.



            Have you considered starting with a form that is GMT compliant (with free parameters) and attempting to solve? I tried with a few forms and was unable to yield a solution.



            In terms of compliant forms, I tried to 'reverse engineer' the result, so I started with the following expressions and tried to solve for the unknown constants:



            begin{equation}
            frac{1}{x^8 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
            end{equation}

            This didn't work, so I tried:
            begin{equation}
            frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1} - frac{b_2}{x - c_2}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
            end{equation}



            I tried a few others, but this was the method employed. As before, it was unsuccessful for me and so I tried different ways. Shame as it seems so close to being GMT applicable!






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the info! And you may very well be right, it may not be possible in the form it is right now. What do you mean by starting in a form that is GMT compliant?
              $endgroup$
              – Suchetan Dontha
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:00










            • $begingroup$
              @SuchetanDontha I've been faced with this before. I desperately tried to get it to work but couldn't (not to say it can't be done). Re Compliant - I will add more detail in my 'answer'. Am just in a meeting right now, but will be edit in 15 minutes.
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:07










            • $begingroup$
              @SuchetanDontha - I have added more detail :-)
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:27










            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the tips, although I don't have that much math experience under my belt, so brute force is the only way I can go! I think the difficult part here is the sin(pi/8) on the bottom of the solution. Even for x^6, the closed form solution simplifies to a nice pi times a coefficient, so i think some sort of trigonometric argument would need to come into play. However, I still believe it is possible and will keep trying.
              $endgroup$
              – Suchetan Dontha
              Dec 19 '18 at 14:10










            • $begingroup$
              Excellent. When you get it out please post and tag me.
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 14:17














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            NOT A SOLUTION:



            In case you are interested in another 'real' based method to solve this - I actually posted a question on this matter (with my solution) yesterday.



            In terms of Glasser's Master Theorem (GMT), I'm not sure it can be positioned that way to be honest... or better put that it would require some very careful (and algebraically extensive) work to yield it into the desired form. In saying that, I could be very wrong about that.



            Have you considered starting with a form that is GMT compliant (with free parameters) and attempting to solve? I tried with a few forms and was unable to yield a solution.



            In terms of compliant forms, I tried to 'reverse engineer' the result, so I started with the following expressions and tried to solve for the unknown constants:



            begin{equation}
            frac{1}{x^8 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
            end{equation}

            This didn't work, so I tried:
            begin{equation}
            frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1} - frac{b_2}{x - c_2}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
            end{equation}



            I tried a few others, but this was the method employed. As before, it was unsuccessful for me and so I tried different ways. Shame as it seems so close to being GMT applicable!






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            NOT A SOLUTION:



            In case you are interested in another 'real' based method to solve this - I actually posted a question on this matter (with my solution) yesterday.



            In terms of Glasser's Master Theorem (GMT), I'm not sure it can be positioned that way to be honest... or better put that it would require some very careful (and algebraically extensive) work to yield it into the desired form. In saying that, I could be very wrong about that.



            Have you considered starting with a form that is GMT compliant (with free parameters) and attempting to solve? I tried with a few forms and was unable to yield a solution.



            In terms of compliant forms, I tried to 'reverse engineer' the result, so I started with the following expressions and tried to solve for the unknown constants:



            begin{equation}
            frac{1}{x^8 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
            end{equation}

            This didn't work, so I tried:
            begin{equation}
            frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = left[left(x - frac{b_1}{x - c_1} - frac{b_2}{x - c_2}right)^4 + d_1 right]^{-1}
            end{equation}



            I tried a few others, but this was the method employed. As before, it was unsuccessful for me and so I tried different ways. Shame as it seems so close to being GMT applicable!







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 19 '18 at 4:27

























            answered Dec 19 '18 at 3:48







            user150203



















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the info! And you may very well be right, it may not be possible in the form it is right now. What do you mean by starting in a form that is GMT compliant?
              $endgroup$
              – Suchetan Dontha
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:00










            • $begingroup$
              @SuchetanDontha I've been faced with this before. I desperately tried to get it to work but couldn't (not to say it can't be done). Re Compliant - I will add more detail in my 'answer'. Am just in a meeting right now, but will be edit in 15 minutes.
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:07










            • $begingroup$
              @SuchetanDontha - I have added more detail :-)
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:27










            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the tips, although I don't have that much math experience under my belt, so brute force is the only way I can go! I think the difficult part here is the sin(pi/8) on the bottom of the solution. Even for x^6, the closed form solution simplifies to a nice pi times a coefficient, so i think some sort of trigonometric argument would need to come into play. However, I still believe it is possible and will keep trying.
              $endgroup$
              – Suchetan Dontha
              Dec 19 '18 at 14:10










            • $begingroup$
              Excellent. When you get it out please post and tag me.
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 14:17


















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the info! And you may very well be right, it may not be possible in the form it is right now. What do you mean by starting in a form that is GMT compliant?
              $endgroup$
              – Suchetan Dontha
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:00










            • $begingroup$
              @SuchetanDontha I've been faced with this before. I desperately tried to get it to work but couldn't (not to say it can't be done). Re Compliant - I will add more detail in my 'answer'. Am just in a meeting right now, but will be edit in 15 minutes.
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:07










            • $begingroup$
              @SuchetanDontha - I have added more detail :-)
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:27










            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the tips, although I don't have that much math experience under my belt, so brute force is the only way I can go! I think the difficult part here is the sin(pi/8) on the bottom of the solution. Even for x^6, the closed form solution simplifies to a nice pi times a coefficient, so i think some sort of trigonometric argument would need to come into play. However, I still believe it is possible and will keep trying.
              $endgroup$
              – Suchetan Dontha
              Dec 19 '18 at 14:10










            • $begingroup$
              Excellent. When you get it out please post and tag me.
              $endgroup$
              – user150203
              Dec 19 '18 at 14:17
















            $begingroup$
            Thanks for the info! And you may very well be right, it may not be possible in the form it is right now. What do you mean by starting in a form that is GMT compliant?
            $endgroup$
            – Suchetan Dontha
            Dec 19 '18 at 4:00




            $begingroup$
            Thanks for the info! And you may very well be right, it may not be possible in the form it is right now. What do you mean by starting in a form that is GMT compliant?
            $endgroup$
            – Suchetan Dontha
            Dec 19 '18 at 4:00












            $begingroup$
            @SuchetanDontha I've been faced with this before. I desperately tried to get it to work but couldn't (not to say it can't be done). Re Compliant - I will add more detail in my 'answer'. Am just in a meeting right now, but will be edit in 15 minutes.
            $endgroup$
            – user150203
            Dec 19 '18 at 4:07




            $begingroup$
            @SuchetanDontha I've been faced with this before. I desperately tried to get it to work but couldn't (not to say it can't be done). Re Compliant - I will add more detail in my 'answer'. Am just in a meeting right now, but will be edit in 15 minutes.
            $endgroup$
            – user150203
            Dec 19 '18 at 4:07












            $begingroup$
            @SuchetanDontha - I have added more detail :-)
            $endgroup$
            – user150203
            Dec 19 '18 at 4:27




            $begingroup$
            @SuchetanDontha - I have added more detail :-)
            $endgroup$
            – user150203
            Dec 19 '18 at 4:27












            $begingroup$
            Thanks for the tips, although I don't have that much math experience under my belt, so brute force is the only way I can go! I think the difficult part here is the sin(pi/8) on the bottom of the solution. Even for x^6, the closed form solution simplifies to a nice pi times a coefficient, so i think some sort of trigonometric argument would need to come into play. However, I still believe it is possible and will keep trying.
            $endgroup$
            – Suchetan Dontha
            Dec 19 '18 at 14:10




            $begingroup$
            Thanks for the tips, although I don't have that much math experience under my belt, so brute force is the only way I can go! I think the difficult part here is the sin(pi/8) on the bottom of the solution. Even for x^6, the closed form solution simplifies to a nice pi times a coefficient, so i think some sort of trigonometric argument would need to come into play. However, I still believe it is possible and will keep trying.
            $endgroup$
            – Suchetan Dontha
            Dec 19 '18 at 14:10












            $begingroup$
            Excellent. When you get it out please post and tag me.
            $endgroup$
            – user150203
            Dec 19 '18 at 14:17




            $begingroup$
            Excellent. When you get it out please post and tag me.
            $endgroup$
            – user150203
            Dec 19 '18 at 14:17











            1












            $begingroup$

            I prefer to use Ramanujan's Master Theorem in situations like this which is a specific Master Theorem for the Mellin Transform.




            Ramanujan's Master Theorem



            Let $f(x)$ be an analytic function with a MacLaurin Expansion of the form
            $$f(x)=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{phi(k)}{k!}(-x)^k$$then the Mellin Transform of this function is given by
            $$int_0^{infty}x^{s-1}f(x)dx=Gamma(s)phi(-s)$$




            The structure of the integrande remindes us the geometric series. First of all noting that we have an even function followed by the substitution $u=x^8$ yields to



            $$begin{align*}
            mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}&=2int_0^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}\
            &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-x^8)^{n}mathrm dx\
            &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-u)^{n}frac{mathrm du}{8u^{7/8}}\
            &=frac14 int_0^infty u^{-7/8}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{n!}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du
            end{align*}$$



            Now we can use Ramanujan's Master Theorem with $s=frac18$ and $phi(n)=Gamma(n+1)$ to get



            $$begin{align*}
            mathfrak I=frac14 int_0^infty u^{1/8-1}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{Gamma(n+1)}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du&=frac14Gammaleft(frac18right)Gammaleft(1-frac18right)\
            &=frac14fracpi{sinleft(fracpi8right)}
            end{align*}$$




            $$therefore~mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}~=~fracpi{4sinleft(fracpi8right)}$$




            The latter manipulations are done via Euler's Reflection Formula. Overall this approach is pretty straightforward and can be easily generalised for arbitrary powers of $x$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              How is $phi(s)$ defined when $s$ is not a nonnegative integer? // Later on, the substitution $w=frac1{1+x^8}$ works more quickly and simply.
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 8:24










            • $begingroup$
              @Did I am not exactly sure concerning your question: are you asking for the general case or regarding to this particular application? Hence for the first situation one have to consider that the integral representation $-$ as Ramanujan used it in the first place $-$ only works out for $0<Re(s)<1$.
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Jan 8 at 8:52










            • $begingroup$
              There are tons of different functions $phi$ such that the first identity in your paragraph "Ramanujan's Master Theorem" holds, but not all of them can make its conclusion true when $s$ is not an integer. For example, if $phi$ works, then $phi_1:smapstophi(s)+7sin(pi s)$ works as well. So, which one should one choose for the conclusion to hold?
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 8:56










            • $begingroup$
              @Did To be honest I am a little bit confused right now. What exactly is the aim of your commentary? Could you maybe rephrase your last question?
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Jan 8 at 9:01






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes it is, or rather, you do not understand it. Actually, you seem to be merely reproducing some wrong formulations from the WP page, neglecting the fact that, in RMT, $phi$ is not just any function such that the expansion of $f$ holds.
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 9:35


















            1












            $begingroup$

            I prefer to use Ramanujan's Master Theorem in situations like this which is a specific Master Theorem for the Mellin Transform.




            Ramanujan's Master Theorem



            Let $f(x)$ be an analytic function with a MacLaurin Expansion of the form
            $$f(x)=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{phi(k)}{k!}(-x)^k$$then the Mellin Transform of this function is given by
            $$int_0^{infty}x^{s-1}f(x)dx=Gamma(s)phi(-s)$$




            The structure of the integrande remindes us the geometric series. First of all noting that we have an even function followed by the substitution $u=x^8$ yields to



            $$begin{align*}
            mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}&=2int_0^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}\
            &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-x^8)^{n}mathrm dx\
            &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-u)^{n}frac{mathrm du}{8u^{7/8}}\
            &=frac14 int_0^infty u^{-7/8}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{n!}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du
            end{align*}$$



            Now we can use Ramanujan's Master Theorem with $s=frac18$ and $phi(n)=Gamma(n+1)$ to get



            $$begin{align*}
            mathfrak I=frac14 int_0^infty u^{1/8-1}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{Gamma(n+1)}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du&=frac14Gammaleft(frac18right)Gammaleft(1-frac18right)\
            &=frac14fracpi{sinleft(fracpi8right)}
            end{align*}$$




            $$therefore~mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}~=~fracpi{4sinleft(fracpi8right)}$$




            The latter manipulations are done via Euler's Reflection Formula. Overall this approach is pretty straightforward and can be easily generalised for arbitrary powers of $x$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              How is $phi(s)$ defined when $s$ is not a nonnegative integer? // Later on, the substitution $w=frac1{1+x^8}$ works more quickly and simply.
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 8:24










            • $begingroup$
              @Did I am not exactly sure concerning your question: are you asking for the general case or regarding to this particular application? Hence for the first situation one have to consider that the integral representation $-$ as Ramanujan used it in the first place $-$ only works out for $0<Re(s)<1$.
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Jan 8 at 8:52










            • $begingroup$
              There are tons of different functions $phi$ such that the first identity in your paragraph "Ramanujan's Master Theorem" holds, but not all of them can make its conclusion true when $s$ is not an integer. For example, if $phi$ works, then $phi_1:smapstophi(s)+7sin(pi s)$ works as well. So, which one should one choose for the conclusion to hold?
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 8:56










            • $begingroup$
              @Did To be honest I am a little bit confused right now. What exactly is the aim of your commentary? Could you maybe rephrase your last question?
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Jan 8 at 9:01






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes it is, or rather, you do not understand it. Actually, you seem to be merely reproducing some wrong formulations from the WP page, neglecting the fact that, in RMT, $phi$ is not just any function such that the expansion of $f$ holds.
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 9:35
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            I prefer to use Ramanujan's Master Theorem in situations like this which is a specific Master Theorem for the Mellin Transform.




            Ramanujan's Master Theorem



            Let $f(x)$ be an analytic function with a MacLaurin Expansion of the form
            $$f(x)=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{phi(k)}{k!}(-x)^k$$then the Mellin Transform of this function is given by
            $$int_0^{infty}x^{s-1}f(x)dx=Gamma(s)phi(-s)$$




            The structure of the integrande remindes us the geometric series. First of all noting that we have an even function followed by the substitution $u=x^8$ yields to



            $$begin{align*}
            mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}&=2int_0^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}\
            &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-x^8)^{n}mathrm dx\
            &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-u)^{n}frac{mathrm du}{8u^{7/8}}\
            &=frac14 int_0^infty u^{-7/8}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{n!}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du
            end{align*}$$



            Now we can use Ramanujan's Master Theorem with $s=frac18$ and $phi(n)=Gamma(n+1)$ to get



            $$begin{align*}
            mathfrak I=frac14 int_0^infty u^{1/8-1}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{Gamma(n+1)}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du&=frac14Gammaleft(frac18right)Gammaleft(1-frac18right)\
            &=frac14fracpi{sinleft(fracpi8right)}
            end{align*}$$




            $$therefore~mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}~=~fracpi{4sinleft(fracpi8right)}$$




            The latter manipulations are done via Euler's Reflection Formula. Overall this approach is pretty straightforward and can be easily generalised for arbitrary powers of $x$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            I prefer to use Ramanujan's Master Theorem in situations like this which is a specific Master Theorem for the Mellin Transform.




            Ramanujan's Master Theorem



            Let $f(x)$ be an analytic function with a MacLaurin Expansion of the form
            $$f(x)=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{phi(k)}{k!}(-x)^k$$then the Mellin Transform of this function is given by
            $$int_0^{infty}x^{s-1}f(x)dx=Gamma(s)phi(-s)$$




            The structure of the integrande remindes us the geometric series. First of all noting that we have an even function followed by the substitution $u=x^8$ yields to



            $$begin{align*}
            mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}&=2int_0^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}\
            &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-x^8)^{n}mathrm dx\
            &=2int_0^infty sum_{n=0}^infty (-u)^{n}frac{mathrm du}{8u^{7/8}}\
            &=frac14 int_0^infty u^{-7/8}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{n!}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du
            end{align*}$$



            Now we can use Ramanujan's Master Theorem with $s=frac18$ and $phi(n)=Gamma(n+1)$ to get



            $$begin{align*}
            mathfrak I=frac14 int_0^infty u^{1/8-1}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{Gamma(n+1)}{n!}(-u)^{n}mathrm du&=frac14Gammaleft(frac18right)Gammaleft(1-frac18right)\
            &=frac14fracpi{sinleft(fracpi8right)}
            end{align*}$$




            $$therefore~mathfrak I=int_{-infty}^infty frac{mathrm dx}{1+x^8}~=~fracpi{4sinleft(fracpi8right)}$$




            The latter manipulations are done via Euler's Reflection Formula. Overall this approach is pretty straightforward and can be easily generalised for arbitrary powers of $x$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 8 at 9:50

























            answered Jan 8 at 6:01









            mrtaurhomrtaurho

            6,09271641




            6,09271641












            • $begingroup$
              How is $phi(s)$ defined when $s$ is not a nonnegative integer? // Later on, the substitution $w=frac1{1+x^8}$ works more quickly and simply.
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 8:24










            • $begingroup$
              @Did I am not exactly sure concerning your question: are you asking for the general case or regarding to this particular application? Hence for the first situation one have to consider that the integral representation $-$ as Ramanujan used it in the first place $-$ only works out for $0<Re(s)<1$.
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Jan 8 at 8:52










            • $begingroup$
              There are tons of different functions $phi$ such that the first identity in your paragraph "Ramanujan's Master Theorem" holds, but not all of them can make its conclusion true when $s$ is not an integer. For example, if $phi$ works, then $phi_1:smapstophi(s)+7sin(pi s)$ works as well. So, which one should one choose for the conclusion to hold?
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 8:56










            • $begingroup$
              @Did To be honest I am a little bit confused right now. What exactly is the aim of your commentary? Could you maybe rephrase your last question?
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Jan 8 at 9:01






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes it is, or rather, you do not understand it. Actually, you seem to be merely reproducing some wrong formulations from the WP page, neglecting the fact that, in RMT, $phi$ is not just any function such that the expansion of $f$ holds.
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 9:35




















            • $begingroup$
              How is $phi(s)$ defined when $s$ is not a nonnegative integer? // Later on, the substitution $w=frac1{1+x^8}$ works more quickly and simply.
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 8:24










            • $begingroup$
              @Did I am not exactly sure concerning your question: are you asking for the general case or regarding to this particular application? Hence for the first situation one have to consider that the integral representation $-$ as Ramanujan used it in the first place $-$ only works out for $0<Re(s)<1$.
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Jan 8 at 8:52










            • $begingroup$
              There are tons of different functions $phi$ such that the first identity in your paragraph "Ramanujan's Master Theorem" holds, but not all of them can make its conclusion true when $s$ is not an integer. For example, if $phi$ works, then $phi_1:smapstophi(s)+7sin(pi s)$ works as well. So, which one should one choose for the conclusion to hold?
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 8:56










            • $begingroup$
              @Did To be honest I am a little bit confused right now. What exactly is the aim of your commentary? Could you maybe rephrase your last question?
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Jan 8 at 9:01






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes it is, or rather, you do not understand it. Actually, you seem to be merely reproducing some wrong formulations from the WP page, neglecting the fact that, in RMT, $phi$ is not just any function such that the expansion of $f$ holds.
              $endgroup$
              – Did
              Jan 8 at 9:35


















            $begingroup$
            How is $phi(s)$ defined when $s$ is not a nonnegative integer? // Later on, the substitution $w=frac1{1+x^8}$ works more quickly and simply.
            $endgroup$
            – Did
            Jan 8 at 8:24




            $begingroup$
            How is $phi(s)$ defined when $s$ is not a nonnegative integer? // Later on, the substitution $w=frac1{1+x^8}$ works more quickly and simply.
            $endgroup$
            – Did
            Jan 8 at 8:24












            $begingroup$
            @Did I am not exactly sure concerning your question: are you asking for the general case or regarding to this particular application? Hence for the first situation one have to consider that the integral representation $-$ as Ramanujan used it in the first place $-$ only works out for $0<Re(s)<1$.
            $endgroup$
            – mrtaurho
            Jan 8 at 8:52




            $begingroup$
            @Did I am not exactly sure concerning your question: are you asking for the general case or regarding to this particular application? Hence for the first situation one have to consider that the integral representation $-$ as Ramanujan used it in the first place $-$ only works out for $0<Re(s)<1$.
            $endgroup$
            – mrtaurho
            Jan 8 at 8:52












            $begingroup$
            There are tons of different functions $phi$ such that the first identity in your paragraph "Ramanujan's Master Theorem" holds, but not all of them can make its conclusion true when $s$ is not an integer. For example, if $phi$ works, then $phi_1:smapstophi(s)+7sin(pi s)$ works as well. So, which one should one choose for the conclusion to hold?
            $endgroup$
            – Did
            Jan 8 at 8:56




            $begingroup$
            There are tons of different functions $phi$ such that the first identity in your paragraph "Ramanujan's Master Theorem" holds, but not all of them can make its conclusion true when $s$ is not an integer. For example, if $phi$ works, then $phi_1:smapstophi(s)+7sin(pi s)$ works as well. So, which one should one choose for the conclusion to hold?
            $endgroup$
            – Did
            Jan 8 at 8:56












            $begingroup$
            @Did To be honest I am a little bit confused right now. What exactly is the aim of your commentary? Could you maybe rephrase your last question?
            $endgroup$
            – mrtaurho
            Jan 8 at 9:01




            $begingroup$
            @Did To be honest I am a little bit confused right now. What exactly is the aim of your commentary? Could you maybe rephrase your last question?
            $endgroup$
            – mrtaurho
            Jan 8 at 9:01




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            Yes it is, or rather, you do not understand it. Actually, you seem to be merely reproducing some wrong formulations from the WP page, neglecting the fact that, in RMT, $phi$ is not just any function such that the expansion of $f$ holds.
            $endgroup$
            – Did
            Jan 8 at 9:35






            $begingroup$
            Yes it is, or rather, you do not understand it. Actually, you seem to be merely reproducing some wrong formulations from the WP page, neglecting the fact that, in RMT, $phi$ is not just any function such that the expansion of $f$ holds.
            $endgroup$
            – Did
            Jan 8 at 9:35




















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